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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Fire-tube boilers are used in?
a) industrial steam generators
b) utility steam generators
c) marine steam generators
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Industrial steam generators use fire-tube boilers as they suit the most for the quantity of steam in the industrial steam generators.

2. Which of the following is not an advantage of a fire-tube boiler?
a) low first cost
b) reliability in operation
c) more draught required
d) quick response to load changes

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The advantages of using a fire tube boiler are low first cost, reliability in operation, less draught required, quick response to load changes, etc.

3. Which of these is a type of fire-tube boiler?
a) Externally fired
b) Internally fired
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] There are two types of a fire-tube boiler which are Internally & Externally fired boilers.

4. Which of these is an externally fired boiler?
a) Package boiler
b) Scotch-marine boiler
c) Lancashire boiler
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The various types of externally fired boiler include Lancashire boilers, Locomotive type boilers, HRT boiler, etc.

5. Which of the following is a type of internally fired boiler?
a) Package boiler
b) HRT boiler
c) Lancashire boiler
d) Locomotive type boiler

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The various types of an internally fired boiler include Scotch-marine boiler, Package boiler, etc.

6. The function of the fusible plug installed in a furnace is?
a) to detect excess current
b) to detect excess heat
c) to detect water level in the tube
d) to detect water level in the shell

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Water level in the shell is detected by the fusible plug installed in the crown of the furnace.

7. Which of the following gaseous fuels has the lowest calorific value?
a) Refinery Gas
b) Gobar Gas
c) Converter Gas
d) Blast Furnace Gas

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The lowest calorific value fuel means a fuel which burns most readily. Among all the given options, the most combustible gas is the blast furnace gas.

8. Fuel gases containing hydrocarbons (e.g. coke oven gas) are not preheated before burning, mainly because
a) there are chances of explosion during preheating
b) it reduces its calorific value tremendously
c) the hydrocarbons crack thereby choking and fouling the heat transfer surface by carbon soot
d) it reduces its flame temperature tremendously

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Fuel gases containing hydrocarbons (i.e. coke oven gas) are not preheated before burning, mainly because the hydrocarbons crack thereby choking and fouling the heat transfer surface by carbon soot.

9. Flue gas discharge velocity through chimney of a big thermal power plant may be around __________ m/sec.
a) 500
b) 0.5
c) 10
d) 50

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The velocity of discharge of flue gases through the chimney of a big thermal power plant is around 10 m/sec.

10. In water tube boilers
a) forced circulation takes place
b) water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases
c) the flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In water tube boilers the flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water.

Set 2

1. The immediate products of fission are called?
a) fission splits
b) fission fragments
c) fission products
d) fission scatters

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The immediate outputs of a fission reaction are called fission fragments while the same when combined with the various by-products are called fission products.

2. Each neutron produces _________ neutron(s) per fission.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Per fission of one neutron, there is a release of 3 neutrons & hence, fission reactions are hard to control once started.

3. 1 Curie =
a) 3.615 x 1010 dis/s
b) 3.615 x 100.7 dis.s
c) 3.615 x 1012 dis
d) 3.615 x 10 dis/s

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The unit of radioactivity, Curie is given as, 1 Curie = 3.615 x 1010 dis/s

4. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope H3 is?
a) Alpha emission
b) Gamma Emission
c) Beta emission
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope H3 is Beta Emission.

5. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Carbon 14 is?
a) Alpha emission
b) Gamma Emission
c) Beta emission
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Carbon 14 is Beta Emission.

6. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Krypton 87 is?
a) Alpha emission
b) Gamma Emission
c) Beta emission
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Krypton 87 is Beta Emission.

7. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Xenon 135 is?
a) Alpha & Beta emission
b) Gamma & Beta Emission
c) Beta emission
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Xenon 135 is Gamma & Beta Emission.

8. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Strontium 90 is?
a) Alpha emission
b) Gamma Emission
c) Beta emission
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Strontium 90 is Beta Emission.

9. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Barium 139 is?
a) Alpha & Beta emission
b) Gamma & Beta Emission
c) Beta emission
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Barium 139 is Gamma & Beta Emission.

10. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Radium 223 is?
a) Alpha & Gamma emission
b) Gamma & Beta Emission
c) Beta emission
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Radium 223 is Alpha & Gamma Emission.

Set 3

1. The half-life of H3 radioisotope is?
a) 12.26 yr
b) 5730 yr
c) 76 min
d) 28.1 yr

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The Half-life of tritium radioisotope is 12.26 years.

2. Readily fissile isotopes have ___________ half-lives.
a) short
b) long
c) both
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] As the isotopes are fissile, naturally they will have more half-life.

3. The unit superseding Curie as the unit of Radioactivity is?
a) Decibel
b) Hectare
c) Becquerel
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Becquerel signifies number of disintegrations per second, much similar to the unit Curie.

4. A series of radioactive fissions is called a?
a) Fission Row
b) Fission Chain
c) Fission Column
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] A series of radioactive fission reactions is called a Fission Chain.

5. Beta decay is usually accompanied by?
a) alpha decay
b) beta decay
c) gamma decay
d) gamma radiation

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The entire beta decay process involves the release of gamma radiation apart from various factors.

6. The amount of energy in MW-days produced of each metric tonne of fuel is?
a) fuel ignition
b) fuel burnup
c) fuel Chain
d) fuel Column

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Fuel burnup is the amount of energy in MW-days produced of each metric tonne of fuel.

7. The number of newly born neutrons in an uncontrolled fission reaction is?
a) 2
b) 2.5
c) 2.47
d) 2.38

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The number of newly born neutrons in an uncontrolled fission reaction is 2.47.

8. The process of losing speed of newly born neutrons on collision with other freshly produced neutrons & other obstacles in the way is called?
a) Dispersion
b) Diversion
c) Deviation
d) Scattering

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The process of losing speed of newly born neutrons on collision with other freshly produced neutrons & other obstacles in the way is called Scattering.

9. In terms of speed, the newly produced neutrons are classed into how many types?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In terms of speed, the newly produced neutrons are classed in many types which are Fast, Slow & Intermediate moving neutrons.

10. The velocity of a fast moving neutron is?
a) 2 m/s
b) 2.4 x 1010 m/s
c) 4.4 x 1010 m/s
d) 4.4 x 106 m/s

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The velocity of the newly produced fast moving neutron is 4.4 x 106 m/s.

Set 4

1. Addition of an infinitesimal amount of heat at the highest temperature is because?
a) to initiate reheating
b) to initiate regeneration
c) to initiate superheating
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The maximum temperature gained in steam cycles using the best available material is about 600 degree Celsius while the critical temperature of steam is about 375 degree Celsius, which necessitates large superheating and permits addition of an infinitesimal amount of heat at the highest temperature.

2. High moisture content is involved during expansion of steam because?
a) to ensure uniform heating
b) to ensure uniform cooling
c) to obtain a higher temperature of heat addition
d) to obtain a lower temperature of heat addition

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In order to obtain a higher temperature of heat addition, heat moisture content is involved during expansion of steam.

3. What is the relation of mean temperature of heat addition and cycle efficiency?
a) both are inversely proportional
b) both are directly proportional
c) both are independent of each other
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The cycle efficiency is a function of mean temperature of heat addition. Hence, both are directly proportional to each other. The need for high pressure is only forced due to weak characteristics of steam.

4. Temperature of heat rejection in a condenser can be lowered by using?
a) lubricant
b) oil
c) refrigerant
d) diesel

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A refrigerant in the form of coolant is used to lower the temperature of heat rejection.

5. The use of which of the following becomes necessary during expansion of steam?
a) reheat
b) regeneration
c) refrigeration
d) superheat

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In order to obtain a higher temperature of heat addition, heat moisture content is involved during expansion of steam. The use of reheat thus, becomes necessary.

6. Which is the drawback of the steam as a working substance in a power cycle?
a) in a vapour power cycle, maximum temperature which can be obtained with best available material is more than the critical temperature of water and requires large superheating
b) it allows only small amount of heat addition at the highest temperature
c) it requires reheat and reheater tubes are costly
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] All the drawbacks mentioned are correct.

7. For maximum efficiency of vapour power cycle, what should be the critical temperature of working fluid?
a) the working fluid should have critical temperature as low as possible
b) the working fluid should have critical temperature as high as possible
c) the critical temperature does not affect the efficiency of the vapour power cycle
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] More the critical temperature, more efficient will be the working.

8. The specific heat of the ideal working fluid used in vapour power cycle
a) should be constant
b) should be large
c) should be small
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The specific heat of a fluid is the amount of energy the fluid takes in heating water for 1 degree Celsius.

9. What is the importance of the freezing point of the working fluid in the vapour power cycle?
a) freezing point of working fluid should be below the room temperature
b) freezing point of working fluid should be above the room temperature
c) freezing point of working fluid should be equal to the room temperature
d) does not have any importance

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] For the efficient working of a working fluid, its freezing point should be below the room temperature.

10. When two vapour cycles are coupled in series and heat rejected by one is absorbed by another, the cycle is called as?
a) Dual vapour cycle
b) Binary vapour cycle
c) Coupled vapour cycle
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Binary vapour cycle is a cycle where two vapour cycles are coupled in series and heat rejected by one is absorbed by another.

11. The engines which are operating on gas power cycle are?
a) cyclic
b) non-cyclic
c) either cyclic or non-cyclic
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The cyclic nature is totally dependent on power cycle; it can be cyclic as well as non-cyclic depending on the gas power cycle.

Set 5

1. Fuel cell converts chemical energy to electrical energy using a reaction that
a) eliminates combustion of fuel
b) requires combustion of fuel
c) requires no ignition of fuel
d) fuel is not required

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Combustion of fuel is eliminated in fuel cells.

2. Fuel cell performance is not limited by
a) First law of Thermodynamics
b) Second law of Thermodynamics
c) Third law of Thermodynamics
d) All three laws are applicable

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The performance of fuel cell is not limited by the Second law of Thermodynamics.

3. For which of these devices does negative charge carriers flow from anode to cathode in the external circuit?
a) MHD generator
b) Thermionic generator
c) Thermoelectric generator
d) Fuel cell

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The sign convention of anode and cathode is same for fuel cell and batteries.

4. The fuel cell is considered a battery in which ___ is continuously replaced.
a) fuel only
b) oxidizer
c) both fuel and oxidizer
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Both fuel and oxidizer are replaced in fuel cell.

5. The type of reactions in a fuel cell is not determined by
a) fuel and oxidizer combination
b) composition of electrolyte
c) materials of anode and cathode
d) catalytic effects of reaction container

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The catalytic effects of electrodes rather than that of reaction container effects the fuel cell reactions.

6. What is the voltage output of hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?(in V)
a) -1.23
b) -1.45
c) -1.01
d) -.93

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The voltage output of hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is -1.23V.

7. What is the voltage output of carbon-oxygen fuel cell?(in V)
a) -.91
b) -1.24
c) -1.02
d) -1.17

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The voltage output of carbon-oxygen fuel cell is -1.02V.

8. What is the voltage output of methane-oxygen fuel cell?(in V)
a) -1.16
b) -1.06
c) -1.26
d) -0.96

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The voltage output of methane-oxygen fuel cell is -1.06V.

9. Which of these gases or liquids are not used as source of hydrogen in fuel cells?
a) C2H6
b) C2H2
c) C6H6
d) C2H5OH

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The only liquid from alcohol series used as a source of hydrogen in fuel cells is methanol CH3OH.

10. The hydrocarbons cracked with steam in fuel cells do not give rise to
a) CO
b) CO2
c) H2
d) H2O

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The cracking of fuel in fuel cells foes not give rise to H2O.

11. Which of these should not be a properties of fuel cell electrodes?
a) good electrical conductors
b) highly resistant to corrosive environment
c) should perform charge seperation
d) take part in chemical reactions

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The fuel cell electrode should not take part in fuel cell electrode.

12. Which of these fuel cell operates at temperature below 100.C?
a) phosphoric fuel cell
b) solid polymer electrolyte fuel cell
c) molten carbon fuel cell
d) hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The Solid Polymer Electrolyte Fuel Cell operates at temperatures less than 100.C.

13. Which of these fuel cells operates at high temperatures and pressures?
a) high temperature solid oxide fuel cell
b) alkaline fuel cell
c) molten carbon fuel cell
d) phosphoric acid fuel cell

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The Molten Carbon Fuel Cell operates at high temperatures and pressures.