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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The basic difference between MRP and MRP-II is:
a) inventory
b) bom
c) finance
d) capacity planning

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] MRP-II is related to finance.

2. Inventory record file gives the following information
a) lot size
b) machine details
c) customer name
d) none of the above

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Only lot size is considered in inventory record file.

3. Bill of material structure is used to
a) calculate net requirements
b) calculate due dates
c) calculate man power requirements
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

4. Just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes on
a) man power
b) manufacturing
c) profit
d) inventory

View Answer

Answer: d

5. Forecasting is used for
a) dependent demand items
b) independent demand items
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

6. CRP takes material requirements from MRP and converts to
a) standard hours of man power
b) standard hours of machine
c) standard hours of load
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

7. Capacity planning is concerned with
a) how many machines required
b) how much labour required
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

8. MRP-II system is called as closed loop system because it considers
a) inventory
b) finance
c) man power
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Only MRP-II system contains finance.

9. P.M.T.S( Predetermined Motion Time System) include
a) M.T.M (Method Time Measurement)
b) W.F.S (Work Factor Systems)
c) B.M.T.S (Basic Motion Time Study)
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

10. M.T.M is used to
a) improve existing methods
b) establish time standards
c) develop effective methods in advance of the beginning of production
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

11. For a small scale industry, the fixed cost per month is Rs. 5000. The variable cost per product is Rs. 20 and sales price is Rs. 30 per piece. The break even production per month will be
a) 300
b) 40
c) 500
d) 1000

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] If x is the break even production per month, then 5000 + 20x = 30x or, x = 500.

12. Two alternatives can produce a product. First has a fixed cost of Rs. 2000 and a variable cost of Rs. 20 per piece. The second method has a fixed cost of Rs. 1500 and a variable cost of Rs.30. The break even quantity between the two alternatives is
a) 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] If x is the break even quantity, then 2000 + 20x = 1500 + 30x or, x = 50.

Set 2

1. Which of the following is not true about fusion welding?
a) It depends upon the characteristics of heat source.
b) It depends upon the nature of deposition of the filler material
c) It does not depend upon the heat flow characteristics in the joint
d) It depends upon the gas metal or slag metal reaction

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Fusion welding depend upon the heat flow characteristics in the joint. It is important to study about heat transfer of the workpiece before welding operation.

2. Which of the following is used to produce heat in the welding process?
a) Electric arc
b) Chemical flame
c) Electric resistance heating
d) All of the Mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Source of heat depend upon the economy and availability. Electric arc, Chemical flame, Electric resistance heating etc may be used for the production of heat.

3. In which of the following welding process heat and pressure is applied on the joint but no filler material of flux is added?
a) Arc welding
b) Resistance welding
c) Gas welding
d) Thermite welding

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In resistance welding process heat and pressure is applied on the joint but no filler material of flux is added.

4. Resistance is composed of:
(i) Resistance of electrode
(ii) Contact resistance between electrode and work piece
(iii) Contact resistance between two work piece plates
(iv) Resistance of work piece
Which of the following are correct?
a) i
b) ii ,iii, iv
c) ii ,iv
d) i ,ii ,iii, iv

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Total resistance is the equivalent resistance of all resistances present in welding circuit during the process of welding.

5. If 20 amperes of current are flowing in the wire for 1 minutes of time having resistance of 1000 ohm. Then the amount of heat generated in resistance welding in kilo joules will be?
a) 24000
b) 240000
c) 24000000
d) 2400

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Heat produced= I2 R T. Where I is the current, R is resistance and T is time duration.

6. Which of the following is true about electrodes?
a) Low electrical conductivity and low mechanical strength
b) Low electrical conductivity and high mechanical strength
c) High electrical conductivity and low mechanical strength
d) High electrical conductivity and high mechanical strength

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] To get maximum efficiency, electrodes should have high electrical conductivity and high mechanical strength.

7. Which of the following is true about resistance welding?
a) Electrodes of higher resistivity is used for lower resistive piece
b) Electrodes of higher resistivity is used for higher resistive piece
c) Electrodes of lower resistivity is used for lower resistive piece
d) None of the Mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] To get high efficiency, electrodes of higher resistivity is used for lower resistive piece.

8. According to the joules law?
a) The poor conductor heats up to a higher degree than a good conductor
b) The poor conductor heats up to a lower degree than a good conductor
c) The poor conductor heats up to equal degree than a good conductor
d) None of the Mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Joules law states that poor conductor heats up to a higher degree than a good conductor.

9. Which of the following electrode has very high electrical conductivity but low strength?
a) Copper chromium alloys
b) Copper cobalt alloys
c) Copper beryllium alloys
d) Copper cadmium alloys

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Copper cadmium alloys have very high electrical conductivity but low strength.They produce very less heat during the current flow.

10. Which of the following electrode has low electrical conductivity but higher strength?
a) Copper chromium alloys
b) Copper cobalt alloys
c) Copper beryllium alloys
d) Copper cadmium alloys

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Copper chromium alloys electrode has low electrical conductivity but higher strength. They generate more heat during current flow.

Set 3

1. Which of the following is an unconventional process of machining?
a) Milling
b) USM
c) Drilling
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] USM stands for ultrasonic machining process and it is an unconventional process of machining.

2. Ultrasonic machining process can be used for
a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Metals
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Ultrasonic machining is more versatile and can be used for metal as well as non metal.

3. Which of the following is a conventional process of machining?
a) Electro chemical machining
b) Electron beam machining
c) Ultrasonic machining
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] All of the mentioned are unconventional process of machining.

4. For machining of plastic material which of the unconventional process can be used effectively?
a) Electro chemical machining
b) Electron beam machining
c) Ultrasonic machining
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Ultrasonic machining is more versatile and can be used for metal as well as non metal.

5. Material removal rate in USM increases with
a) Decrease in volume of work material per impact
b) Increase in volume of work material per impact
c) Decrease in frequency
d) Decrease in number of particle making impact per cycle

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Material removal rate in USM is proportional to the volume of work material per impact.

6. Material removal rate in USM increases with
a) Decrease in volume of work material per impact
b) Decrease in volume of work material per impact
c) Decrease in frequency
d) Increase in number of particle making impact per cycle

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Material removal rate in USM is proportional to the number of particle making impact per cycle.

7. Material removal rate in USM increases with
a) Decrease in volume of work material per impact
b) Decrease in volume of work material per impact
c) Increases in frequency
d) Decreases in number of particle making impact per cycle

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Material removal rate in Ultrasonic machining is proportional to frequency.

8. Element of machine which is used to convert high frequency electrical impulse into mechanical vibration in USM is known as
a) Tool
b) Feeding unit
c) Transducer
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Transducer is a device which is used to convert one form of energy to other.

9. Which of the following element of USM is used to apply working force during machining operation?
a) Tool
b) Feeding unit
c) Transducer
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Feeding unit is used to apply working force during machining operation.

10. Material removal rate in USM increases with
a) Decrease in amplitude
b) Decrease in grain size of abrasives
c) Decrease in frequency
d) Increase in amplitude

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Material removal rate in ultrasonic machining is proportional to amplitude.

Set 4

1. _____are commonly used to control product on a horizontal or inclined conveyor.
a) Magnet
b) Cleated
c) Clamped
d) Stock

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Cleated belt conveyors are commonly used to control product on a horizontal or inclined conveyor, the key attributes for cleated conveyors are the accuracy.

2. What does the below equation represent?

mechanical-operations-questions-answers-materials-construction-q2
a) Froude number
b) Reynold’s number
c) Sherwood number
d) Kick’s number

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The type of fluidization can be predicted by criteria of Froude number, where Vmf is minimum velocity of flow over the whole cross section area.

3. Fluidization occurs when, Fr is _____
a) 1.5
b) Zero
c) Infinite
d) Unity

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] When the Froude number is less than unity, particulate fluidization occurs and at higher values aggregative fluidization takes place.

4. If the particle are small, the flow is ______
a) Transient
b) Laminar
c) Turbulent
d) Eddy

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] If the particles is very small, the flow through the channels between the particles will be laminar and pressure drop increases.

5. As the velocity increases, pressure drop ____
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Is constant
d) Diverted

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] As the velocity is gradually increased, the pressure drop increase but the particles do not move and the bed height remains same.

6. At the fluidizing point, pressure gradient _____
a) Falls
b) Increases
c) Is zero
d) Is unity

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] At the fluidizing point, the pressure gradient begins to fall because the porosity of the bed increases.

7. Minimum fluidization velocity is calculated by _____
a) Reynold’s equation
b) Dom’s equation
c) Crump equation
d) Ergun’s equation

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] An equation for the minimum fluidization velocity can be obtained by settling the pressure drop across the bed equal to weight of the bed per unit area.

8. What does the below equation represent?

mechanical-operations-questions-answers-materials-construction-q8

a) Reynold’s equation
b) Schmidt equation
c) Ergun’s equation
d) Froude’s equation

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The above equation is called as the Ergun’s equation, where the dependence of minimum fluidization velocity on Dp.

9. For low Reynold’s number, the terminal velocity ____
a) Falls
b) Increases
c) Is zero
d) Is unity

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The terminal velocity for individual particles falling in the still air shows that, for low Reynold’s number.

10. The following equation depends upon ______

mechanical-operations-questions-answers-materials-construction-q10

a) Void fraction
b) Velocity gradient
c) Entropy
d) Enthalpy

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The ratio of the terminal velocity and the fluidization velocity mainly depend mainly on the void fraction at minimum fluidization.

Set 5

1. The heating value of gaseous fuels is about
a) 500 kJ/litre
b) 30 kJ/litre
c) 100 kJ/litre
d) 10 kJ/litre

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] 30 kJ/litre is the heating value of gaseous fuels.

2. The compressor has to be started
a) Before starting the gas turbine
b) After starting the gas turbine
c) Simultaneously with starting of gas turbine
d) At any time during the operation

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Compressor has to be started before starting the gas turbine as the turbine work is used by compressor.

3. Which of these is not a part of a Gas Turbine Plant?
a) Compressor
b) Gas Turbine
c) Combustion chamber
d) Boiler

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A Gas Turbine Plant has the following parts: Compressor, Gas Turbine, Combustion chamber.

4. The major field(s) of application of gas turbine is (are)
a) Aviation
b) Oil and gas industry
c) Marine propulsion
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A Gas Turbine has applications in nearly all fields, the major ones being in the fields of Aviation, Oil & Gas industry, Marine propulsion.

5. The following is (are) the limitation(s) of gas turbines.
a) They are not self-starting
b) Higher rotor speeds
c) Low efficiencies at part loads
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The limitations in the functioning of a Gas Turbines are inability of self-starting, excess rotor speeds and inability to adjust to varying loads.

6. The ratio of heat actually released by 1kg of fuel to heat that would be released by complete perfect combustion, is called
a) Thermal efficiency
b) Combustion efficiency
c) Engine efficiency
d) Compression efficiency

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Combustion efficiency is defined as,” The ratio of heat actually released by 1kg of fuel to heat that would be released by complete perfect combustion”.

7. The percentage of total energy input appearing as network output of the cycle
a) Thermal efficiency
b) Combustion efficiency
c) Engine efficiency
d) Compression efficiency

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Thermal Efficiency is, “The percentage of total energy input appearing as network output of the cycle”.

8. The following method(s) can be used to improve the thermal efficiency of open cycle gas turbine plant
a) inter-cooling
b) Reheating
c) Regeneration
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The various methods to improve the efficiency of open cycles include intercooling the feed water from the compressor to the turbine and then employing regeneration & reheat to just use the power of the reheated water in order to maximize the power output.

9. Which of the following is (are) used as starter for a gas turbine
a) An Internal combustion engine
b) A steam turbine
c) An auxiliary electric motor
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] There are various methods by which a Gas Turbine can be started, they are by the use of an Internal Combustion engine, a steam turbine, an auxiliary electric motor, etc.

10. Gas turbine is shut down by
a) Turning off starter
b) Stopping the compressor
c) Fuel is cut off from the combustor
d) Any of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The only way to stop a running Gas turbine is by cutting off the fuel supply so that the various processes in the cycle are stopped.