Multiple choice question for engineering
Set 1
1. Which of the following pump is not an example of well pump?
a) Hand pumps
b) Steam engine pumps
c) Jet pumps
d) Centrifugal pumps
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The types of pumps that are used for lifting water from wells are Hand pumps, Reciprocating pumps, Centrifugal pumps, Air lift pumps and Jet pumps.
2. Which type of pump is specifically used for shallow wells?
a) Hand pump
b) Reciprocating pump
c) Jet pump
d) Centrifugal pump
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Hand pumps are used specifically for shallow wells, whereas Reciprocating pumps are used for deep wells.
3. How many types of hand pumps are used?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] There are two types of hand pumps- Pitcher pump and Force pump. A Pitcher pump consists of a cylinder in which a plunger moves up and down.
4. The maximum number of impellers in a centrifugal well pump is
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The maximum number of impellers in a centrifugal well pump is 20 and it depends on the head, mixed flow, propeller type with vanes and guide passages.
5. The diameter of turbine used in centrifugal well pump is
a) 50cm
b) 64cm
c) 15cm
d) 100cm
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] The diameter of turbine used in centrifugal well pump lies between 10 to 35cm and its length varies from 20 to 60cm.
6. _______ is provided at the entrance of suction pipe during centrifugal pump installation.
a) Delivery pipe
b)Foot valve
c) Strainer
d) Check valve
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Strainer is provided at the entrance of suction pipe during centrifugal pump installation to prevent the clogging otherwise it will damage the pump.
7. Which part of centrifugal well pumps act as a self priming device?
a) Delivery pipe
b) Foot valve
c) Strainer
d) Check valve
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] When the pump is stopped, the foot valve prevents the water from leaving the pump. Therefore, it acts as a self priming device.
8. Which part of centrifugal well pumps prevents the back flow through the pump?
a) Delivery pipe
b) Foot valve
c) Strainer
d) Check valve
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Check valve is present at the entrance of the delivery pipe which prevents the back flow of water through the pump.
9. __________ is defined as the speed at which a pump will discharge a unit flow under a unit head at maximum efficiency.
a) Specific speed
b) Average speed
c) Maximum speed
d) Relative speed
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The speed at which the pump will discharge a unit flow under a unit head at maximum efficiency is called specific speed. It is denoted by NS.
10. The unit of specific speed is
a) Metre/second
b) Metre/second2
c) Centimetre/second
d) Dimensionless
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Specific speed is a dimensionless quantity which is given by NS = NQ1/2 / H3/4.
11. The specific speed of the pump is 8000. What is the type of pump?
a) Reciprocating pump
b) Centrifugal pump
c) Mixed flow pump
d) Axial flow pump
Answer
Answer:d [Reason:] When the specific speed lies between 5000 to 10,000, the type of the pump is an axial flow pump.
Figure 1: Characteristic curve of centrifugal well pump
Answer to Q. 12 and 13 using the figure 1.
12. Which one of the following represents ‘A’?
a) Total static head
b) Total dynamic head
c) Shut off head
d) Minimum head
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] A is represented as the shut off head, which is the maximum head of pump. It lasts for a short period of time.
13. In figure 1, ‘B’ is represented by _______
a) Total static head
b) Total dynamic head
c) Shut off head
d) Minimum head
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The head under which the pump will not work is the minimum head. It occurs when the discharge is maximum.
Answer to Q. 14 and 15 using figure 2.
Figure 2: Characteristic curve of centrifugal well pump.
14. Which one of the following is correct?
a) C = Maximum efficiency
b) D = Minimum efficiency
c) C = Rated discharge
d) D = Shutoff head
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The graph is plotted between the efficiency of the pump and the discharge. As discharge increases, efficiency increases, then at point C, the efficiency of pump are maximum after which it goes on decreasing.
15. The rated discharge is represented by
a) C
b) D
c) E
d) F
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The discharge at which the efficiency of the pump is maximum is called as rated discharge. It is represented by point D.
Set 2
1. In which process of water softening, ion exchange phenomenon takes place?
a) Lime soda process
b) Zeolite process
c) Boiling
d) Demineralization process
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] In the zeolite process, calcium and magnesium are removed from hard water by ion exchange phenomenon.
2. In which process of water softening, the chemicals are added to remove hardness from water?
a) Lime soda process
b) Zeolite process
c) Boiling
d) Demineralization process
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] In Lime soda process, lime and soda are added to remove temporary and permanent hardness from water.
3. Zeolites are complex compound of
a) Aluminium and lime
b) Silica and soda
c) Aluminium, silica and soda
d) Lime and soda
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Zeolites are complex compound of Aluminium, silica and soda. It has the property of removing calcium and magnesium from water and substituting sodium in their place.
4. The color of the artificial zeolite permutit is
a) Grey
b) Yellow
c) Green
d) White
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The artificial zeolite permutit has a large and lustrous grain. They are white in color and has an appearance of coarse sand.
5. Natural zeolite are mainly processed from
a) White sand
b) Green sand
c) Grey sand
d) Red sand
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The natural zeolite is mainly processed from Green sand, which is also called as Glauconite. It has lesser exchange value than artificial zeolite.
6. The color of the natural zeolite is
a) Green
b) Grey
c) Black
d) Blue
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] The color of the natural zeolite is green as they are processed from Glauconite which is green in color. It has an exchange value of 6500-9000gm of hardness per m3 of zeolite.
7. The chemical formula of Permutit is
a) SiOAl2O3Na2O
b) SiO2Al2O3Na2O
c) SiO2Al2O3NaO
d) SiO3Al2O3Na2O
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The chemical formula of Permutit is SiO2Al2O3Na2O. The increase in the value of SiO2 increases its resistance to aggressive attacks.
8. Permutit has an exchange value of ________ grams of hardness per m3 of zeolite.
a) 10,000
b) 20,000-30,000
c) 35,000-40,000
d) 40,000-50,000
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Permutit has an exchange value of 35,000-40,000 grams of hardness per m3 of zeolite. They absorb moisture from the atmosphere and should be kept in a dry place.
9. The thickness of the layers of filter sand of zeolite softener is
a) 20cm
b) 30cm
c) 40cm
d) 100cm
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The thickness of the layers of filter sand of zeolite softener lies in the range of 75 to 150cm and their functioning is similar to rapid sand filter.
10. Which of the following is a disadvantage of zeolite process?
a) No sludge is formed
b) The process is almost automatic
c) Suspended impurities get deposited around the zeolite particles
d) Zero hardness can be occurred
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] The zeolite process is unsuitable for highly turbid water where suspended impurities get deposited around the zeolite particles.
11. State whether the following statement is true or false
The zeolite process is unsuitable for water containing iron and manganese.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Iron and manganese bearing water deposit hydroxides on the surface of zeolite or react with zeolite to substitute iron and manganese for sodium, which is an irreversible reaction. This makes zeolite process unsuitable.
Set 3
1. When environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is less is than Adiabatic Lapse Rate (ALR), then which of the following occurs?
a) Sub adiabatic lapse rate
b) Super adiabatic lapse rate
c) Neutral lapse rate
d) Adiabatic lapse rate
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] When the temperature increases with increase in altitude, Sub adiabatic lapse rate occur and there will be stable environment.
2. _______ occurs when atmospheric temperature increases with height.
a) Negative lapse rate
b) Super adiabatic lapse rate
c) Neutral lapse rate
d) Positive lapse rate
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Under negative lapse rate, the colder air is below the warmer air. It can be occurred near the earth’s surface.
3. When environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is equal to the Adiabatic Lapse Rate (ALR), then which of the following occurs?
a) Sub adiabatic lapse rate
b) Super adiabatic lapse rate
c) Neutral lapse rate
d) Adiabatic lapse rate
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] When the temperature is constant with height, then neutral lapse rate occurs.
4. State whether the following statement is true or false.
The wet adiabatic rate is greater than the dry adiabatic rate.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] The value of wet adiabatic rate is 60C per 1000m whereas of dry adiabatic rate is 9.80C per 1000m.
5. When Environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is greater than Adiabatic Lapse Rate (ALR), then which of the following occurs?
a) Sub adiabatic lapse rate
b) Super adiabatic lapse rate
c) Neutral lapse rate
d) Adiabatic lapse rate
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] In Super adiabatic lapse rate, the environment is unstable due to quick dispersion of pollutants.
6. Which of the following is the absorption unit?
a) Cyclone collector
b) Plate tower
c) Gravitation settling chamber
d) Dynamic precipitator
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Cyclone collector, Gravitation settling chamber and Dynamic precipitator are used to remove particulate matter, whereas Plate tower is used to remove gaseous matter and is an absorption unit.
7. Which of the following catalyst is used for removing hydrocarbon from gaseous pollutant in combustion unit?
a) Platinum
b) Activated alumina
c) Vanadium
d) Potassium permanganate
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Activated alumina is used as a catalyst for removing gaseous pollutant called hydrocarbons from the air. The concentration of hydrocarbon emitted from automobiles is 300-1000 mg/l.
8. Which of the following is not a part of adsorption unit?
a) Packed towers
b) Multiple fixed bed
c) Fluidized bed
d) Moving bed
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Packed tower is a part of the absorption unit, whereas multiple fixed bed, fluidized bed and moving bed are the examples of absorbers.
9. Which of the following is a bulk phenomena?
a) Physical adsorption
b) Chemical adsorption
c) Absorption
d) Sorption
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Adsorption is a bulk phenomena, whereas absorption is a surface phenomena.
10. Which of the following is not an adsorbent?
a) Molecular sieves
b) Activated carbon
c) Activated alumina
d) Water
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Water is an absorbent whereas molecular sieves, activated carbon and activated alumina are adsorbents.
Set 4
1. Which of the following deals with how food is adjudged by the consumer?
a) Food microbiology
b) Product Development
c) Sensory Analysis
d) Food physics
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Sensory Analysis deals with how the food is adjudged by a consumer.
2. Industry lobbying, local to international rules, Quality and food safety etc includes which component of the food industry?
a) R&D
b) Financial Services
c) Regulation
d) Wholesale and distribution
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Food regulation ensures Industry lobbying, local to international rules, Quality and food safety.
3. Which of the following does NOT constitute 90% of dry weight of any food?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Fibres
c) Proteins
d) Fats
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Carbohydrates, fats and protein constitute 90% of dry weight of any food.
4. Which sentence is untrue with respect to the human body?
a) Unconsumed water broken → fats
b) Carbohydrates broken → Sugars
c) Proteins broken down → Amino acids
d) Fats broken down → Fatty acids and glycerol
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Water isn’t converted into anything inside the body. It is just a carrier and removes toxins from the body via sweat and urine.
5. Which provides energy very slowly?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Fats
c) Proteins
d) Fibers
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Carbohydrates provide quick energy. Proteins are for body growth. Fibres do not provide energy as they don’t have any calorific value. Hence, fats slowly provide energy.
6. Which of the following is untrue?
a) A gram of carbohydrate or protein contains 4 calories
b) A gram of fat contains 9 calories
c) A gram of fat contains 5 calories
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] 4 calories make a gram of carbohydrate or protein and 9 calories make a gram of fat.
7. Storage requirements and stability, product attributes conductive to product sale etc. The above activities refer to which step of the food industry?
a) Production
b) Manufacture
c) Distribution
d) Marketing
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Storage requirements and storage stability, product attributes conductive to product sale etc refer to Distribution of food products.
8. With respect to the definition of an allied industry, which is an allied industry with the food industry?
a) Explosives Industry
b) Packaging Industry
c) Jute Industry
d) Leather Industry
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Non-food components and for marketing manufacturing companies are called allied industries. Packaging industry needed for food packaging is one of them.
9. Food industry is a high volume industry. Hence, any losses maybe a major loss to the producer. Is this statement-
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] It is true that food industry is a high volume industry. Hence, any loss is a major loss to the producer.
10. Increasing the agricultural efficiency is the most important way to make sure food production meets the necessity.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Increasing the efficiency of agriculture is the most important way to make sure food production meets the demand.
Set 5
1. Which of the following is untrue about grilling meat?
a) The advantage of this process is that it reduces the saturated fat in the meat
b) It produces Hetero cyclic amines which are carcinogenic
c) It produces poly cyclic aromatic hydrocarbons which are carcinogenic
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] All the given points about grilling of meat are correct.
2. Poly cyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons are formed when the meat is exposed to very high temperatures.
a) True
b) False
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Hetero cyclic amines are formed when the meat is exposed to very high temperatures.
Poly cyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons are formed when fat from the meat ignites/ drips on the coal.
3. Which information is incorrect when it comes to dehydration affecting vitamins?
a) Beta-carotene and B-vitamin do not get affected
b) Vitamin C does not get affected
c) Vitamin C is retained during pickling of vegetables
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Vitamin C is lost during dehydration.
4. Which of the following is untrue?
a) Many Vitamin Bs like Vitamin B6 are affected by heating
b) Vitamin C is lost in almost all food processing steps
c) Vitamin C degradation decreases by enzymes and also metals like Cu and Fe
d) Vitamin A is stable in absence of oxygen
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Vitamin C degradation increases by metals like Cu and Fe and also by the action of enzymes.
5. Alisha challenged her friends that one special vitamin would not be affected when she boils milk. Which vitamin is it?
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin B
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] Vitamin D is not affected by any processing and is very stable.
6. Which of the following statements is true with respect to food processing?
a) Sodium is lost during cooking and selenium is volatile and is lost by cooking or processing
b) Vitamins can be removed from food via leaching
c) Mineral losses in food processing are more compared to Vitamins
d) Boiling has less mineral losses as compared to steaming
Answer
Answer: a [Reason:] Sodium is lost during cooking and selenium is volatile and is lost by cooking or processing. Minerals can be removed from food via leaching. Vitamin losses in food processing are more compared to minerals. Boiling has more mineral losses as compared to steaming.
7. Which is correct with respect to staling of bread?
a) It is temperature dependent
b) It is called retro gradation
c) It is the reverse of gelatinization
d) All of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The given statements are true.
8. Which of the following is true with respect to gelatinization?
a) It allows starch to be easily digested
b) In this process, on heating, the crystalline structure of starch is lost and gel is formed
c) In this process, on cooling, the digestibility of starch in the intestine decreases
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] The process mentioned in c is retro grading which is the opposite of gelatinization.
9. Which of the following operation reduces the dietary fibre content in cereals?
a) Drying
b) Retro gradation
c) Grinding
d) Milling
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] Milling reduces the dietary fibre content in cereals.
10. Nancy works at a cheese processing unit. They subject the cheese to oxidation. Which of the following comments pertaining to the above scenario are correct?
a) Oxidation is necessary for products like cheese
b) Lipid Oxidation is otherwise a major concern for the food industry
c) Deterioration of fats and oils is called rancidity
d) All of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] The given statements are true.
11. Which among the following statements is untrue?
a) Self oxidation of lipids is called ‘auto-oxidation’
b) High content of PUFA losing flavour is called rancidity
c) Heating and frying lead to polymerization of fats
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: b [Reason:] High content of PUFA losing flavour is called flavour reversion.
12. Subjecting fats to high temperature in the presence of oxygen such that fats deteriorate is called _________
a) Hydrolytic rancidity
b) Auto- oxidation
c) Thermal decomposition
d) Lipolysis
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] Subjecting fats to high temperature in the presence of oxygen such that fats deteriorate is called thermal decomposition.
13. Which of the following shows the propagation step in auto-oxidation?
a) R∙ + R∙ → R-R
b) RH → R∙ + H∙
c) R∙ + O2 → RO2∙
RO2∙ + RH → ROOH + R∙
d) None of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: c [Reason:] R∙ + O2 → RO2∙, RO2∙ + RH → ROOH + R∙ shows propagation step.
14. Which of the following is a food safety tool?
a) Good Hygiene Practice
b) Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point
c) Total Quality Management
d) All of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] All of the above mentioned are food safety tools.
15. Hazards affecting food are _____
a) Chemical, Biological, Physical
b) Additives, Colour
c) Pollutants
d) All of the mentioned
Answer
Answer: d [Reason:] All the mentioned are safety hazards.