Multiple choice question for engineering
1. How many types of reporter gene constructs are there?
2. Desired changes are made in the structure of the promoter and is ligated onto reporter gene. The alteration can be known by measuring the activity. Is the given statement true or false?
3. ______ fluorescent protein should be used for determination of _______ of subcellular components.
a) One, age
b) One, location
c) More than one, location
d) More than one, age
4. Sequences can be cloned flanking the reporter genes using the transposon tagging approach. The use of reporter genes to identify sequences expressed in this way is called as:
5. If detection of enhancers is done it is called as ______ and for detection of transcribed sequences it is called as ______
a) enhancer trapping, promoter trapping
b) enhancer trapping, gene trapping
c) promoter trapping, gene trapping
d) promoter trapping, enhancer trapping
6. The enhancer trap system will _____ in the ______
a) not replicate independently, host
b) replicate independently, host
c) not replicate independently, vector
d) replicate independently, vector
7. For gene trap vector system, reporter gene and _____ are present. Reporter gene is _____
a) selectable marker, having promoter
b) selectable marker, promoterless
c) helper phage, promoterless
d) helper phage, having promoter
8. The reporter gene in enhancer trap system is preceded by ______
d) origin of replication
9. Insertion of vector into intron gives rise to ________. It contains a part coming from intron and a part from ______
a) hybrid intron, exon
b) hybrid vector, exon
c) hybrid intron, target DNA sequence
d) hybrid vector, target DNA sequence
10. The hybrid intron is spliced from the transcript using the splice acceptor site in the vector. Is the given statement true or false?
1. If the embryo is at one-cell stage then it is found in:
d) either ovary or uterus
2. Embryonic stem cells are also used for generation of transgenic organisms. They are obtained from _______ of a developing ________
a) trophoectoderm, gastrula
b) trophoectoderm, blastula
c) inner cell mass, blastula
d) inner cell mass, gastrula
3. Embryonic stem cells (ES) are isolated and are injected again into the blastocoel of a developing embryo. The embryo which develops is entirely made up of these cells only. Is the given statement true or false?
4. ES cells are used in order to ensure that insertion is done at required chromosomal location and it is called as:
a) gene targeting
b) knocking out
c) knocking in
d) gene disruption
5. If a gene is inactivated by gene targeting then it is called as:
a) knock-in gene
b) knock-out gene
c) gene disruption
d) insertional inactivation
6. Integration events may be insertional involving _____ crossover or replacement involving _____ crossovers.
a) single, single
b) double, double
c) double, single
d) single, double
7. It is necessary to analyse the genome of transgenic cells to confirm that the site of integration is correct. This is carried out by southern blotting. Is the given statement true or false?
8. The gene targeting approach produces individuals which are ______ for inactivation of gene.
c) either only homozygous or only heterozygous
d) both heterozygous and homozygous
9. If controlled inactivation of gene is carried out and some of the consequences when inactivation of a target gene is deleterious are avoided. It is referred as:
a) specialized gene targeting
b) controlled gene targeting
c) conditional gene targeting
d) specific gene targeting
10. For carrying out gene manipulation, use of cultured cells is _____ transgenic organisms.
a) less reliable
b) more reliable
c) may be less or more reliable
d) is same reliable as
1. Libraries can broadly be classified into how many types?
2. Choose the correct statement for genomic libraries.
a) Genomic libraries include the representation of the whole genome of the organism
b) Sequences such as telomeres are also represented
c) Telomeres can be readily cloned
d) The larger the size of insert of genomic DNA in recombinants, the more is the number of recombinants required to represent the genome in the library
3. Choose the incorrect statement for preparation of genomic libraries.
a) The first step is isolation of genomic DNA
b) Physical damage to the DNA should be avoided
c) If a nuclear DNA library is to be constructed, organelle DNA is to be removed
d) For the construction of organelle library, organelle DNA is purified from the nuclear DNA
4. The various steps for construction of libraries are:
i) Fragmentation of DNA
ii) Isolation of genomic DNA
iv) Ligation and introduction to the host
v) Vector preparation
The correct order of construction of libraries is (In the order of starting to ending) :
5. Complete digestion is preferred over partial digestion for the fragmentation of DNA. The given statement is true or false?
6. To avoid ligation of separate DNA fragments, which of the enzyme is used?
7. Vector and insert are mixed, ligated and packaged and introduced into the host by:
d) transformation and infection both
8. Libraries using phage cloning vectors are often kept as:
a) unpackaged phage
b) packaged phage
c) both packaged and unpackaged phage
d) both packaged and unpackaged phage are used but packaged is favoured
9. Libraries constructed in plasmid vectors can be kept as:
a) plasmid containing cells
b) naked DNA
c) both plasmid containing cells and naked DNA
d) naked DNA is preferred over plasmid containing cells
10. During storage there are chances of degradation of DNA. Larger fragments are having more chances of being got lost. The given statement is true or false?
1. Choose the correct statement for lambda ZAP vector.
a) It is not based on bacteriophage lambda
b) It contains a region that can be excised in vivo
c) The excision leads to the formation of bluescript plasmids and it contains an initiator region only
d) The multiple cloning site is not flanked by the initiator and the terminator region
2. The initiator is recognized by which gene?
a) Gene I
b) Gene I and II
c) Only gene II
d) Gene III
3. Choose the incorrect statement for the replication process.
a) The initiator site is nicked and replication of one strand is started
b) Replication takes place in both the directions
c) Replication continues through the bluescript
d) It is stopped at the terminator and then again a nick is made
4. Which of the following doesn’t takes place after replication?
a) The single stranded sequence is generated
b) It is circularized to form closed single stranded molecule
c) It may circularize or remain linear
d) The double stranded molecule can be synthesized by cellular DNA synthesis
5. Choose the correct statement for cosmids.
a) It can be regarded as lambda substitution vector
b) Less amount of phage DNA is deleted
c) Only cos packaging sites are left
d) It doesn’t contains a origin of replication
6. Once cosmids are inside the E.coli cells, they don’t generate phage but are propagated as plasmids. Is the given statement true or false.
7. Which of the following is the correct method to check whether the DNA has entered into the cell or not in the case of cosmid?
a) If transformation has taken place turbid plaques are formed
b) If transformation has taken place clear plaques are formed
c) If transformation has taken place, it can be confirmed via ampicillin resistance
d) If transformation has taken place, it can be confirmed if forms plaques and is ampicillin resistant also
8. Which size of insert is accepted by the cosmids?
a) 10-20 kbp
b) 35-45 kbp
c) 50-60 kbp
d) 100-120 kbp
9. What happens once the cosmid enters the E. coli cells?
a) There is strict size selection inside E. coli cells
b) Partial deletion may take place
c) The tendency of deletion may is increased by using low copy number
d) The tendency of deletion can’t be altered
10. If colEI derived origin of replication is replaced by origin of replication of F plasmid, it is called as:
b) F cosmid
1. One of the commonly used markers is URA3 gene. It encodes for ______ biosynthesis.
2. CAN1 gene encodes a permease that causes uptake of _________ analogue.
a) toxic guanidine
b) toxic arginine
c) non-toxic guanidine
d) non-toxic arginine
3. Loss of SUP4 abolishes canavanine uptake, it is arginine analogue. Is the given statement true or false?
4. Phosphoribosyl amino-imidazole carboxylase is a component of _______ biosynthesis pathway.
c) both purine and pyrimidine
d) only adenine
5. Cells that have lost SUP4 gene acquire _____ pigment and are visibly distinguishable from others.
6. Cells mutant in _____ gene can be selected by using 5-fluoro orotic acid, which is turned into ____ products by wild type protein.
a) SUP4, toxic
b) SUP4, non-toxic
c) URA3, toxic
d) URA3, non-toxic
7. The replicating plasmid vectors in yeast can be divided broadly into how many categories?
8. Yeast centromeric plasmid (YCp50) contains ampicillin and tetracycline resistant gene. Is the given statement true or false?
9. CEN4 in YCp50 is an example of _______
a) tetracycline resistant gene
b) ampicillin resistant gene
c) chromosomal centromeric sequence
d) autonomously replicating sequence
10. Yeast episomal plasmids have the following feature?
a) They contain ARS and CEL both
b) They contain ARS but not CEL
c) They contain CEL but not ARS
d) CEL is necessarily present but ARS may or may not be present
11. Cis-acting REP 3 sequence is present in Yeast episomal plasmids. Choose the statement which holds true for it?
a) It is present along with chromosomal centromeric sequence
b) It is the site of action of proteins that help in partitioning
c) It gives less stability to that of YCs
d) The copy number is low than that of YCs