Multiple choice question for engineering
1. RNaseH method and homopolymer tailing method generates blunt ended cDNA molecules. Which of the following can be used for attaching them to vector?
a) Blunt ended ligation
b) Addition of linkers
c) Using appropriate restriction enzymes
d) All the methods can be used equivalently
2. Choose the correct statement for modification of homopolymer tailing method.
a) It includes modification of primers
b) Primers are varied by simply altering their size by randomly adding or removing bases
c) The 5’ end of the first cDNA strand is tailed with C residues
d) A single stranded oilgonucleotide is then used for second strand synthesis
3. By synthesizing two strands separately then annealing them leads to formation of double stranded oligonucleotide. Is the given statement true or false?
4. Choose the incorrect statement for the homopolymer tailing of cDNA strands.
a) The blunt ended double stranded cDNA molecules are treated with terminal transferase and dCTPs
b) Vector is also treated with terminal transferase and dGTPs
c) The vector and cDNA can now anneal with the help of DNA ligase
d) If gaps are created they can be repaired by physiological processes
5. Choose the correct statement if the RNA is non polydenylated.
a) A collection of chemically synthesized oligonucleotides is used as primers
b) They are usually tetramer
c) Unequal quantities of A, G, T and C are used
d) The primers attach at only specific sequences for first strand synthesis
6. In case if molecules smaller than the fragments required for making a full genomic library, are used for making a collection. This collection is called as:
c) small library
d) mini library
7. Choose the correct statement for construction of a library subsection.
a) The size of a particular restriction fragment on which the gene is located is not known
b) The size of the restriction fragment can be known by carrying out southern blotting
c) Another digest of the genomic DNA is carried out by different enzyme
d) DNA fragments of different size are recovered after carrying out gel electrophoresis
8. Any cDNA library would represent a fraction of RNA species of an organism. Is the given statement true or false?
9. What do we mean by housekeeping genes?
a) Housekeeping genes are those genes which are specific to an organism
b) Housekeeping genes are those genes which are present in all the organisms
c) Housekeeping genes are those genes which are meant for repair and maintenance in a species of organism
d) Housekeeping genes are those genes which required for replication process
10. Choose the correct statement for RNA fractionation.
a) The RNA is fractioned by size but before separating on oligo-dT cellulose
b) A sucrose density gradient is used
c) The RNA is applied to the top of a pre-poured gradient and during centrifugation smaller molecules move down the tube faster
d) Different bands are formed according to the density in the sucrose density gradient
11. What is done after RNA fractionation is carried out?
a) Each band is translated in vivo
b) Translation is carried out in wheat gram or lysate of rabbit reticulocyte cells
c) Translation is carried out with a high background
d) Amino acid is not radioactively labelled
12. The polypeptides produced after addition of mRNA are analysed with antibodies. Choose the incorrect statement for this analysis.
a) Antibodies are added to each reaction tube and precipitation is simply based on antigen-antibody reaction
b) Along with simple antigen-antibody complex, a substrate is added for easy precipitation
c) Protein A-Sepharose is added
d) Protein A-Sepharose binds to IgG antibodies
13. What is done after the recovery of pellets has been carried out in order to know the amount of polypeptides?
a) Denaturing and gel electrophoresis in SDS- Polyacryamide gel
b) Gel electrophoresis in agarose gel
c) Quantitative PCR
d) Weighing pellets
1. Insertion vectors are a type of vectors. Choose the correct statement for this type of vector.
a) These are complex vectors
b) DNA is inserted through many restriction sites
c) There is an upper limit on the size of the DNA to be packaged
d) Lambda gt09 is an example of this type of vector
2. Choose the correct statement for lambda gt10.
a) It is having an EcoRI site
b) It is having cII gene
c) It accepts an insert of size greater than that of 8 kbp
d) This size is less than that the size which is generally accepted by wild type phage
3. The presence of insert leads to inactivation of which gene?
d) Both cII and cIII
4. A portion of phage is removed and in place of it the DNA of interest is inserted. This type of vector is called as:
a) displacement vector
b) insertion vector
c) substitution vector
d) transposition vector
5. Choose the incorrect statement for the central portion of lambda genome.
a) The central portion is not required for lytic growth
b) The central portion includes repressor gene
c) The repressor gene is not required for lysogenic growth
d) It is approximately 10kbp long
6. The fragment inserted in the place of the central portion of genome is known as:
a) insertion fragment
b) substitution fragment
c) stuffer fragment
d) displacement fragment
7. Choose incorrect statement for the substitution vector EMBL4.
a) It is having two single multiple cloning sites
b) The region to be removed is on one side of the multiple cloning sites
c) If a digestion within the multiple cloning sites, it generates central portion and right and left arms
d) The right and left portions are called as arms
8. Is it necessary to stop the relegation of central portion before the stiffer fragment is ligated. The given statement is true or false?
9. At times, a second enzyme is used while the central portion is removed and the stuffer fragment is placed there. Choose the statement which doesn’t holds for this process.
a) It is a method which is used for avoiding the relegation of central portion before the stuffer fragment is attached over there
b) In this method, the central portion is cut with another enzyme after being separated from the arms
c) The arms are also cut with this second enzyme
d) It is not necessary to remove the fragments generated
10. Physical separation is also used at times. Choose the correct statement in respect to this method.
a) Physical separation constitutes of gel electrophoresis and or by using centrifugation in sugar density gradient
b) In sugar density gradient, the molecules are separated on the basis of density
c) The central portion is recovered from the gel or the gradient
d) Gel is more efficient than the sugar density gradient
11. Packaging in vitro is also carried out to introduce the lambda DNA into the cells. Choose the incorrect statement in respect to it.
a) Packaging in phage coat is a more efficient process than the normal transformation process
b) The lambda DNA is incubated with lysate of lambda infected cells in a concatemeric configuration
c) Lysate constitutes of lambda proteins needed for phage assembly
d) The amount of non-recombinant phage in the background is less
12. Packaging in vitro is basically carried out by two different strategies. Choose the incorrect statement for it.
a) Separate strains with chain-termination mutations in different genes for coat components is used
b) Temperature sensitive cI repressor is used
c) Due to heat shock packaging proteins are induced
d) Packaging is carried out in each strain
13. Chain-termination mutations in coat proteins genes are carried out. The coat protein coat genes used are:
a) A gene
b) D gene
c) E and D gene
d) D and A gene
1. Plasmids are used for carrying out the cloning procedure. Which of the statement is true for plasmids?
a) Bacterial plasmids are linear in nature
b) They are single stranded
c) Insertion of DNA into plasmid allows it to be propagated in host cells and they are known as vectors because of their this property
d) They are not capable of replication in bacteria
2. Which of the following characteristic is not present in a plasmid on a general basis?
a) Multiple cloning site (MCS)
b) Origin of replication (ori)
c) Antibiotic resistance gene
d) Beta galactose genes
3. bla is a gene, which is incorrect for it?
a) It is an antibiotic resistance genes
b) Antibiotic acts by blocking the cross-linking of the bacterial cell wall and thus leading to lysing of cells
c) It encodes beta lactamase enzyme
d) The beta lactam ring is activated
4. Which of the characteristics is present in lacZ gene?
a) It encodes for beta galactosidase enzyme
b) Beta galactosidase enzyme is responsible for cleaving monosaccharides into the constituent elements
c) It doesn’t cleaves a substrate called as X-gal
d) But if X-gal is cleaved, it liberates pink coloured dye
5. Which of the following orientation is not propagated to later stages?
a) Circular plasmids having genomic DNA
b) Intramolecular ligation of plasmids
c) Linear molecules
d) Head to head ligation of two DNA plasmids
6. Molecules having new combination of sequences that were not present before are called as:
a) intermolecular ligants
d) intramolecular ligants
7. Insertion of DNA into lacZ gene may lead to disruption of the gene function. This given statement is true or false?
8. Transformation efficiency is defined as:
a) ratio of transformed colonies by microgram of sample DNA that is to be inserted
b) ratio of transformed colonies by amount of sample DNA that is to be inserted
c) ratio of transformed colonies by microgram of plasmid DNA
d) ratio of transformed colonies by amount of plasmid DNA
9. After carrying out the cloning experiment, the cells are plated on agar. Along with agar, it also contains antibiotic resistant genes, X-gal and an inducer of lacZ gene. Which of the following would grow?
a) Cells that have taken up plasmid DNA
b) Cells that have taken up genomic DNA
c) Cells having no insert
d) Cells either having no insert or having genomic DNA
1. The ________ protein of bacteriophage P1 mediates site-specific recombination at a 34 bp sequence, loxP.
a) cre recombinase
b) gene II
c) gene IV
d) gene VIII
2. Choose the incorrect statement for cre-lox excision.
a) The chromosomal copy of the target gene replaces the target gene flanked by loxP sites
b) The second step is supply of Cre recombinase
c) Integration of cre takes place under a controllable promoter followed by induction of the promoter
d) Induction results in expression of cre, recombination along loxP sites and excision of the sequence between
3. Cre can be introduced by crossing it with a strain containing the gene or by infection with virus containing it. Is the given statement true or false?
4. How much effect is there on the surrounding genes by the loxP sequence which is left after recombination has take place?
a) Little effect
b) No effect
c) Huge effect
d) It depends on the nature of the surrounding gene
5. The ability to control the expression of cre allows controlling what?
6. Excision of DNA flanked by loxP sequences is also known as _________
a) subtle excision
d) sequence specific excision
7. RNA molecule with catalytic activity is termed as________
b) catalytic RNA
c) reactive RNA
8. Hepatitis delta virus capable of self cleavage. Is the given statement true or false?
9. Choose the correct statement for self cleavage reaction.
a) It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 2’ hydroxyl of RNA
b) It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 3’ hydroxyl of RNA
c) It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 2’ hydroxyl of DNA
d) It is nucleophilic attack reaction by 3’ hydroxyl of DNA
10. Self cleavage reaction can take place in?
c) Both DNA and RNA
d) Can take place in both but is preferred in DNA
1. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by deficiency of the enzyme hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT). Cells deficient in HGPRT die in a medium containing which of the following?
a) Hypoxanthine and thymidine
c) Aminopterin and thymidine
d) Hypoxanthine, thymidine and aminopterin (HAT medium)
2. Presence of wild-type DNA onto the HGPRT– in the presence of _______ led to DNA uptake and stable transformation.
a) lithium acetate
b) calcium phosphate
c) sodium chloride
d) aluminum sulphate
3. Cells deficient in thymidine kinase (TK) are also killed in HAT medium. Is the given statement true or false?
4. Hygromycin is used as a selectable marker in mammalian cultured cells. It is used for:
a) initiating protein synthesis
b) inhibiting protein synthesis
c) initiating DNA binding process
d) inhibiting DNA binding process
5. Puromycin, is a protein synthesis inhibitor. It is conferred by_______ gene:
d) both streptococcal and streptomyces
6. Resistance to bleomycin (zeocin) is used as a selectable marker for mammalian cultured cells and its function is:
a) DNA damaging agent
b) DNA synthesis promoter
c) Inhibiting RNA synthesis
d) Activating RNA synthesis
7. Resistance to methotrexate, which inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) is used as selectable marker. This enzyme is involved in synthesis of _____ carbon units and is required for _____ biosynthesis.
a) two, nucleoside
b) two, nucleotide
c) one, nucleotide
d) one, nucleoside
8. Histidinol dehydrogenase allows synthesis of histidine from exogenous histanol. Is the given statement true or false?
9. Many mammalian cells contain Thymidine Kinase, the mammalian enzyme uses the analogue _____ than does the viral enzyme.
a) more efficiently
b) less efficiently
c) with same efficiency
d) either with same or more efficiency
10. A wide range of host cell lines are available and commonly used human cell lines are obtained from:
c) lymphoblast from leukaemia patient
d) both kidney and lymphoblast from a leukaemia patient
11. DEAE-dextran is used for introduction of DNA. It is a modified _____ and is ______
a) polysaccharide, negatively
b) polysaccharide, positively
c) monosaccharide, positively
d) monosaccharide, negatively
12. Cells whose contents have been removed and replaced, by swelling and shrinking in solutions of suitable osmotic strength are called as:
c) shrunken cells
13. In _____ cells, virus replication doesn’t take place and viral DNA _____
a) non-permissive, is also not expressed
b) permissive, is also not expressed
c) non-permissive, can be expressed
d) non-permissive, is always expressed
14. SV40 is a virus and it produces how many transcripts?
15. Splicing of the transcripts is necessary for efficient expression. Is the given statement true or false?