Multiple choice question for engineering
1. Chlamyodomonas reinhardtii is a green, ______ algae.
d) either unicellular or di-cellular
2. Chlamyodomonas genome is _______ rich.
c) Only A
d) Only C
3. Integration of DNA into the Chlamydomonas genome is via homologous recombination. Is the given statement true or false?
4. Transformation of Chlamydomonas is most efficient in which method?
a) Lithium acetate method
c) Protoplast based method
d) Both electroporation and protoplast based method
5. OEE1 gene encodes a component of _________
a) photosystem I
b) photosystem II
c) both photosystem I and II
d) which neither belongs to photosystem I nor II
6. Homologue of yeast ARG4 in Chlamydomonas is:
7. cw15 is a mutant strain, it _____ and thus called as _____
a) lacks cell wall, natural protoplast
b) lacks cell wall, artificial protoplast
c) has cell wall, artificial protoplast
d) has cell wall, natural protoplast
8. Genetic manipulation of Volvox carteri is carried out using nitrogen reducatse or antibiotic resistance. Is the given statement true or false?
9. For Chlorella, which method is used for DNA uptake?
b) Direct uptake of naked DNA
d) Chemically induced uptake by protoplast
10. Members of genera Haematococcus are used for production of:
d) carotenoid and xanthenoid both
1. Amplification of specific region can be done by using primers for specific regions. If the PCR product is ______ and is in sufficient quantity, then sequence can be determined ________
a) non-specific, directly
b) non-specific, indirectly or directly
c) specific, directly
d) specific, indirectly
2. Which of the following is not suitable if the PCR product is non-specific?
a) Adjusting the concentration of magnesium ions
b) Increasing annealing temperature
c) Using touchdown PCR
d) Using inverse PCR
3. The disadvantage in the approach based on using PCR is that there is no permanent record until some of the bacterial cells are preserved. Is the given statement true or false?
4. How many approaches are there in order to clone the complete genome?
5. If a full proteomic analysis of growth medium is carried out and is combined with ______ genome sequence, genes for other _____ proteins are also obtained.
a) partial, defensive
b) partial, secreted
c) complete, defensive
d) complete, secreted
6. If a putative protein sequence is cloned in an expression vector and the expressed protein is not showing protease activity, then which of the following is not correct?
a) The protein is not protease
b) The protein can be incorrectly folded which can block the protease activity
c) There might be some other cofactor required for protease activity
d) The most commonly used expression system is E.coli
7. For getting large amount of proteins to crystallize, which of the following should be used as an expression system?
a) Bacterial system
b) Yeast systems
c) Eukaryotic systems
d) Both eukaryotic and bacterial systems can be used
8. If a mutation perturbs the structure, then stability and folding is not affected. Is the given statement true or false?
9. The RNA level ______ the steady-state level of the corresponding protein directly and the post-translational modification of the protein ______.
a) reflects, can be determined
b) reflects, can’t be determined
c) doesn’t necessarily reflects, can be determined
d) doesn’t necessarily reflects, can’t be determined
10. For a convenient transformation system, _____ can be used for gene silencing.
a) antisense RNA
b) transposon insertion
c) either antisense RNA or transposon insertion
d) transposon insertion followed by antisense RNA
1. Which of the following is useful in applications of PCR?
a) It is manual
b) Only one sample’s analysis can be carried out at a time
c) It is having a high speed
d) The amount of DNA required initially is high
2. What is the correct statement with respect to ddNTPs?
a) They are dideoxynucleotide triphosphates
b) They are used in termination of DNA sequencing
c) They are used for initiating DNA sequencing
d) They are used in the case if the starting amounts are large
3. Cycle sequencing is the DNA sequencing where very less amounts of template is utilised for carrying out the sequencing. The given statement is true or false?
4. Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder. Which of the following doesn’t holds true for it?
a) It can be analysed by PCR
b) It destroys a restriction site
c) The mutation is in alpha globulin gene
d) The conventional approach took weeks for the whole analyses to be carried out
5. PCR products can be analysed in many ways. Which of the following is not possible?
a) Use of restriction enzymes
b) Determining whether a particular oliginucleotide probe hybridizes to a PCR product
d) Direct sequencing can’t be carried out
6. Which of the statements don’t hold true for the forensics and the amplification carried out?
a) In the case of forensics, conventional methods such as southern blotting are used very effectively
b) In cases of bone fragments which contain less than 300 nucleotides conventional methods can’t be applied as they involve southern blotting, restriction digestion etc.
c) The poor condition of DNA also makes the PCR amplification difficult
d) Microsatellites composed of simply varying repeats of CA sequences is used
7. The genetic relatedness between organisms can be identified by studying the band patterns when different PCR products are analysed electrophoreically. This method is called as:
a) restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
b) amplified fragment length polymorphism (AFLP)
c) random amplification of polymorphic DNA (RAPD)
8. PCR is useful in population genetics because at times it can be used to study genetics of bacteria that can’t be cultured axenically. Is the statement true or false?
9. PCR amplification can be used for which type of samples?
a) Old samples only
b) Recent samples only
c) Equally to both recent and old samples
d) Recent samples are preferred but can be applied to old samples also
10. What is problem associated with historical DNA samples?
a) They are less in amount thus amplification is difficult
b) Because the samples are very old, there can be contamination
c) They degrade during repeated cooling and heating cycles
d) As the samples are old, the standard sequences for comparison is not present
1. F (fertility) factor is used in many bacterial systems for different purposes. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to F factor.
a) It was identified in E. coli for catalysing genetic exchange between cells
b) Cells having F factor are called as female
c) The F factor is transferred from one cell to another via factors present outside
d) They are not related to BAC systems
2. F factor integration into the host chromosome is called as:
a) F’ plasmid
b) F factor and host chromosome recombination
c) Hfr (High frequency of recombination)
d) Recombinant host chromosome
3. Excision of F factor can also be done from the host chromosome. Choose the incorrect statement in respect to it.
a) This excision is possible in vivo
b) Along with F factor, host chromosome’s DNA sequences are also excised
c) The sequences of host chromosome which can be accommodated in the F plasmid are small in size
d) These plasmids are termed as F’ plasmids
4. The low copy number of F plasmid is essential for the stability of these plasmids. The given statement is true or false.
5. Choose the correct statement for BAC vector system.
a) BAC vector system stands for bacteria and chromosome
b) It usually accepts insert of size approximately 1000kbp
c) The repE and oriS sequences are required for controlling the copy number and par A-C sequences are required for replication
d) A selectable marker is there for chloramphenicol resistance
6. The bacteriophage M13 vectors belong to a group of phages called as:
a) skinny or filamentous phage
b) M phage group
c) single stranded phage
d) double stranded phage
7. Choose the correct statement for the infection process of M13.
a) The infectious particle is double stranded
b) It is contained in a protein coat which is made up of products of gene III or gene VIII
c) The phage infects only female cells
d) The phage enters the bacterial cells by the filament which is meant for movement
8. Once the bacteriophage enters the bacterial cells, some changes are carried out in it. Which of the following is not included?
a) The single stranded molecule entering the cell is single stranded and is called as + strand
b) The single stranded molecule is converted into double stranded molecule which is called as replicative form (RF)
c) It is carried out in a process similar to normal replication process of E. coli
d) The positive strand is used for transcription of viral proteins
9. Replication can also be carried out by rolling circle replication. Choose the correct statement for this type of replication?
a) It can be used for the formation of RF
b) The product of gene III binds on a specific site of double stranded genome
c) It creates a nick in the – strand generating a free 3’ hydroxyl
d) This strand is extended by the polymerase and displaces the original – strand
10. Gene V blocks the production of which gene?
a) Gene III
b) Gene II
c) Gene VIII
d) Gene IV
1. An organism containing a gene which doesn’t belongs to it and is derived from somewhere else then the organism is said to be:
2. E.coli is a gram negative bacterium. Is the given statement true or false?
3. If a host other than E.coli is to be used, what property of DNA to be inserted is disadvantageous?
a) Circular DNA
b) Linear DNA
c) Replicating DNA
d) Non-replicating DNA
4. If plasmids direct their own transfer from one bacterium cell to another, then they are called as:
c) autonomously replicating
5. If a plasmid can’t be transferred from one cell to another, then it is called as:
6. Choose the incorrect statement for shuttle vectors.
a) These are vector hybrids constructed from E.coli and other plasmids
b) They are having a varied use
c) They can replicate and selected in both the species
d) They are the plasmids which are having naturally broad host range
7. Which of the bacteria are used as hosts?
c) Both gram positive and negative are preferred equally
d) Both can be used but gram positive is preferred
8. Basically, there are how many methods for introduction of DNA into the bacterial cells?
9. Gram-positive Bacillus, Streptococcus and Streptomyces include species that don’t exhibit natural competence. Is the given statement true or false?
10. Competence is determined by the excretion into growth medium of _______, _________ proteins called as competence proteins.
a) cellular, high molecular weight
b) cellular, low molecular weight
c) extracellular, low molecular weight
d) extracellular, high molecular weight
11. Natural transformation can be relieved by the use of protoplasts, in the presence of osmotic buffer and polyethylene glycol. What are protoplasts?
a) Protoplasts are the cells from which cell membrane has been removed
b) Protoplasts are the cells from which cell wall has been removed
c) Protoplasts are the cells from which vacuole has been removed
d) Protoplasts are the cells from which golgi bodies are removed
12. Transfer of plasmids from one cell to another can also be done conjugation. The plasmid to be transferred known as ______ is often unable to do so by itself and thus it relies on other plasmids known as ______
a) cargo, conjugal
b) conjugal, cargo
c) cargo, helper
d) conjugal, helper
13. The transfer of plasmid from one bacterial cell to another when cargo and conjugal plasmids are used, it is usually is carried out by _____ mating.