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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The variously shaped depressions of different dimensions that are developed in the riverbed are called
a) Potholes
b) Cavities
c) Dents
d) Craters

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Potholes are variously shaped depressions of different dimensions that are developed in the riverbed by excessive localized erosion by the streams.

2. Every major river is associated with a valley of its own. State true or false.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A valley may be defined as a low land surrounded on sides by inclined hill slopes and mountains. Every major river is associated with a valley of its own.

3. Magnificent jumps made by a stream or river water at certain specific parts of their course where there is sudden and considerable drop in the gradient of the channel are called
a) Streams
b) Hydraulic jumps
c) Waterfalls
d) Knick-jumps

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Waterfalls are magnificent jumps made by a stream or river water at certain specific parts of their course where there is sudden and considerable drop in the gradient of the channel.

4. The most common type of flood plains are
a) Flat flood plains
b) Simple flood plains
c) Compound flood plains
d) Complex flood plains

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Convex flood plains are the most common type and are associated with many major rivers of the world.

5. Alluvial deposits of roughly triangular shape that are deposited by major rivers at their mouths are called
a) Deltas
b) Backwaters
c) Lakes
d) Streams

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Deltas are defined as alluvial deposits of roughly triangular shape that are deposited by major rivers at their mouths, i.e., where they enter a sea.

6. A typical delta is made of how many layers?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] A typical simple delta is commonly made of three layers of which only the top layer may be sub aerial, that is exposed on the surface.

7. The fore-set beds are intermediate layers. State true or false.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The fore-sets are the intermediate layers and often show very steep inclination. The fore-set beds are made up of thick layers of sand and clay.

8. The condition not favouring the formation of delta is
a) Absence of strong sea currents
b) Presence of good quality of load
c) Slope of seashore where the stream enters must be gentle
d) Presence of strong sea currents

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Three conditions necessary for the formation and growth of a delta are: absence of any strong sea currents; presence of good quality of load in the stream and the slope of seashore where the stream enters the seawater must necessarily be quite gentle and wide.

9. Places of steep drops in elevation in the course of a river are called
a) Depressions
b) Cavities
c) Knickpoints
d) Nickopoints

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Kickpoints are actually places of steep drops in elevation in the course of a river. These are very often caused due to presence of rocks of unequal hardness at those places.

Set 2

1. Granites have poor fire resistance. State true or false.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Many otherwise sound building stones like granites and other coarse grained igneous rocks are poor in fire resistance. These may become unsuitable for use in heat intensive situations.

2. Ease with which a stone can be extracted and dressed is called
a) Consistency
b) Workability
c) Easability
d) Permeability

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] By workability of a stone is understood the ease in effort and the economy with which it can be extracted from its natural place of occurrence and finally given a proper shape called dressing.

3. Which of the following is not true about granite?
a) Very high crushing strength
b) Low absorption values
c) Takes good polish
d) High absorption values

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Granites show very high crushing strength, low absorption value, least porosity, interlocking texture, variety of appealing colours and capacity to get brilliant polish.

4. Limestone can be used as facing stones at situations where
a) Air is polluted with industrial gases
b) Along sea coasts where sea water-rich winds can attack them
c) Less chemical exposure and mild weather
d) The place has very harsh weather

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Use of limestone as facing stones, even if quite strong, should be avoided in situations where- the air is polluted with industrial gases, such as in industrial towns; along sea coasts where sea-water-rich winds can attack them directly.

5. The resistance offered by a stone against rubbing action is called
a) Rubbing resistance
b) Abrasive resistance
c) Frictional resistance
d) Shear resistance

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Abrasive is more a qualitative than quantitative property and may be broadly defined as the resistance, which a stone offers to rubbing action of one kind or another.

6. Which of the following is not a desirable of a road stone?
a) Hydrophobic in nature
b) Sufficient hardness and toughness
c) Durability at the place of use
d) Hydrophilic in nature

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Following are most important properties a good road stone should possess- sufficient hardness and toughness; durability at the place of use; cementation capacity; non-swelling or hydrophobic property.

7. The property which defines the resistance of a stone to rubbing and grinding action under the wheel of the traffic is called
a) Abrasive resistance
b) Crushing resistance
c) Hardness
d) Specific gravity

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Hardness is defined as the resistance of a stone to rubbing and grinding action under the wheel of the traffic as also due to mutual attrition. It is known that the aggregates of roads and pavements undergo repeated shaking movements under the traffic load.

8. Marble does not take polish. State true or false.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Marbles have sufficient strength to beam building loads and at the same time can be given any desirable shape because of their low hardness. Marble can take brilliant polish.

9. Common bitumen is generally of which nature?
a) Anionic
b) Cationic
c) Neutral charge
d) No charge

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Common bitumen is generally anionic in character. Any aggregate having electrolytic property will behave as hydrophobic or water repelling and vice-versa. This holds well in aggregates.

10. The basic igneous rock which is dark coloured and has been extensively used as road materials is
a) Granite
b) Gabbro
c) Basalt
d) Syenite

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Basalts are dark coloured basic igneous rocks that have been extensively used as road materials in areas of their occurrence. The rock is generally characterised with a crushing strength between 2000-3000 kg/cm2 and also with great toughness.

11. The test which is conducted by an indirect method usually is
a) Compressive strength test
b) Shear strength test
c) Bending strength test
d) Tensile strength test

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The tensile strength of rock samples may be determined directly or indirectly. The direct method would require elaborate means to avoid bending while applying tensile forces. Hence usually indirect methods are used to find out the tensile strength of the stones.

Set 3

1. Which of the following is represented by ratio of density of substance to density of water at 400c?
a) Specific gravity
b) Mass density
c) Weight density
d) Specific density

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Specific gravity is the ratio of density of that substance to density of water at 400c.

2. In air bubbler system, air pressure is measured.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In air bubbler system, air pressure is measure using air bubbles in measuring liquid.

3. Which of the following cannot be used for density measurement?
a) Hydrometer system
b) Pitot-static device
c) Air bubbler system
d) U-tube system

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Pitot-static device are used for flow measurement, all other devices are used for density measurement.

4. Which of the following device doesn’t uses storage of liquid?
a) Manometer system
b) Hydrometer system
c) U-tube system
d) Air bubbler system

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In U-tube system, density of liquid is measured by allowing liquid to flow through. It doesn’t require storage of liquid under measurement.

5. Manometer system cannot be used for measuring density.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Manometer system can be used for measuring density of liquid also.

6. Which of the following represents correct relationship of density and length of column?
a) Direct proportionality
b) Inverse proportionality
c) Equal
d) None of the above

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Correct relation explaining it is ΔP=hϱg, where density becomes inversely portioned to length.

7. Which of the following represents relation for pressure change in a column?
a) hϱg
b) hϱ
c) hg
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Product of density, acceleration due to gravity and length of column represents pressure difference in column.

8. ____________ can be used for measuring density.
a) Load cell
b) pH meter
c) Pitot static device
d) Mutimeter

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] For density measurement, load cell can also be used. It employs indication of density in terms of force.

9. Which of the following is used to represent mass per unit volume of a substance?
a) Mass density
b) Weight density
c) Specific density
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Mass density of a substance is the mass per unit volume of the substance.

10. Specific volume of all substances depends on ______________
a) Temperature only
b) Pressure only
c) Both temperature and pressure
d) Temperature and pressure for some

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] For compressible fluids specific volume depends on temperature and pressure, for all other substances specific volume depends on temperature only.

Set 4

1. Closeness of measured value to true value is _________________
a) Accuracy
b) Precision
c) Correction
d) Uncertainty

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Accuracy of a measurement is defined by closeness of a measured value to true value.

2. _______________ of a measuring system refers to its ability to follow instant by instant the measurand with time.
a) Bandwidth
b) Fidelity
c) Measurement lag
d) Settling time

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Fidelity of a measuring system or transducer refers to its ability to follow instant by instant the variations of measurand with time.

3. For a measuring system, dynamic sensitivity is required to be ________ of static sensitivity.
a) ±2%
b) ±5%
c) ±10%
d) ±20%

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] For a measuring system, tolerated variation of dynamic sensitivity is only ±2% of static sensitivity. That is dynamic sensitivity should be minimum.

4. What is the span of an instrument, operating under a bias which read value from 230V to 450V only?
a) 450
b) 220
c) 230
d) 400

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Span of an instrument is the difference between upper and lower calibrated values. Hence, span in this case is 450 – 230 = 220.

5. Given input out characteristic of a typical system, name the region marked as ‘a’
instrumentation-transducers-interview-questions-answers-q5
a) Dead zone
b) Range
c) Drift region
d) Threshold

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Dead zone is the region in which output starts responding to input. It is marked as region a, below which there is no output for input.

6. What will be the ratio of amplitudes of largest (maximum) signal to smallest (minimum) signal to which the system is subjected?
a) Time constant
b) Settling period
c) Dynamic range
d) Bandwidth

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Ratio of amplitude of large signal to small signal is termed as dynamic range of system.

7. For a Measurement, indicated value is 225V while true value if 226V. What will be the static error of instrument?
a) 1V
b) -1V
c) 0.5V
d) -0.5V

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Static error is the difference between measured value and true value of a measurement. Here measured value is 225V while true value is 226V.

8. What is the relation between static error and static correction?
a) Static error is negative of static correction
b) Both are equal
c) No relation
d) Both will be always positive

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] From the definition of static correction and static error, it is clear the both are negative to each other. Static correction = (true value – indicated value) = – (static error).

9. What is the term used to express ability of a measuring system to maintain its standard performance?
a) Zero stability
b) Stability
c) Sensitivity
d) Linearity

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Stability of a system is defined as the ability to maintain its standard performance over prolonged time. Transducers and systems with high stability need not be calibrated.

10. What is ‘live zero’?
a) Output zero for zero input
b) Output non zero for zero input
c) Output null for all input
d) Output unpredictable

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Live zero is a term used to describe system in which output has a nonzero value for zero input.

Set 5

1. Which of the following is true for ideal filter frequency response?
a) Abrupt change from pass band to reject band
b) Smooth change from pass band to reject band
c) Contains only pass band
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] An ideal filter shows ideal performance and change from pass band to reject band occurs abruptly.

2. Which of the following is true for low-pass filter?
a) Pass band less than cut-off frequency
b) Pass band greater the cut-off frequency
c) Pass band anywhere in frequency response
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A low-pass filter means, which passes all frequencies less than cut-off frequency. That is pass band will be less than cut-off frequency.

3. Identify the frequency response?
instrumentation-transducers-interview-questions-answers-freshers-q3
a) Low pass filter
b) High pass filter
c) Band pass filter
d) Band reject filter

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Given frequency response passes a definite band of frequency and surely it is a band pass filter.

4. Which of the following represents bridge-T filter?
a) Band pass filter
b) Low pass filter
c) High pass filter
d) Band reject filter

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Bridge-T filters reject a specific band of frequency and allows other frequencies to pass through. Hence it is a band reject filter.

5. Twin-T filter is band reject and Notch filter is band pass filter.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Twin-T filter itself is called as Notch filter, they are band reject filters.

6. Notch filter belongs to _________________
a) Zero-order system
b) First-order system
c) Second-order system
d) Third-order system

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Notch filter transfer function is very complex one and contains higher order of three.

7. Rejection frequency of notch filter can be expressed as _________________
a) 1/RC
b) 1/C
c) 1/R
d) Unpredictable

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Rejection frequency is the range of frequency rejected by filter, It is on applicable if R1=R2 and C1=C2.

8. Which of the following statement is true?
a) Lead network is composed of capacitor only
b) Lag network is composed of inductor only
c) Lead network is composed of resistance only
d) Lead network and lag network is composed of resistance and capacitor

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Lead network, lag network are composed of resistance and capacitive components using different configurations.

9. Tuned LCR circuit forms band-pass filters.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Tuned LCR circuit in series and parallel combination allows specific band of frequency to pass through and is band pass filter.

10. Why dynamic compensation is used?
a) To increase pass band
b) To increase cut off frequency
c) To improve dynamic performance
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Dynamic compensation is used for improving dynamic performance of system, it is achieved by proper selection of resistances and use of amplifiers to reduce effect of losses.