Multiple choice question for engineering
1. Modulus of elasticity, E is calculated using:
Answer: a [Reason:] The modulus of elasticity is found out to determine plastic or elastic nature of concrete. In the formula, fck is the characteristic strength.
2. The figure below represents a:
a) Low slump
b) Normal slump
c) Shear slump
d) Collapse slump
Answer: d [Reason:] In slump test, fresh concrete is filled in a slump cone and it is taken off. The shape of the so formed concrete is represented in the figure above. The concrete has completely collapsed, hence the name.
3. Tensile strength is found out using:
b) Gradual tensile test
c) Split tensile test
d) Radial tensile test
Answer: c [Reason:] In addition to using characteristic strength fck to determine tensile strength, split tensile test can also be used. It is performed using a UTM.
4. Flexure strength is determined as:
a) Modulus of rigidity
b) Modulus of rupture
c) Modulus of plasticity
d) Modulus of elasticity
Answer: b [Reason:] Flexure strength of concrete is defined as the tensile strength of extreme fibre of plain concrete beam. It is determined in terms of modulus of rupture.
5. Compaction factor for heavily reinforced section with vibration is:
Answer: c [Reason:] Compaction factor test is conducted to determine the compaction factor. It has different values required for different purposes. To concrete a heavily reinforced section with vibration it is 0.85-0.92.
6. The result of Vee-Bee test is expressed in terms of:
Answer: a [Reason:] The time is tested is Vee-Bee test. Time required to complete remoulding of concrete when subjected to the vibration is measured. It is then expressed in seconds.
7. The size of commonly used specimen for compression test is:
a) 50×30 mm
b) 150x150x150 mm
c) 150x50x50 mm
d) 150×150 mm
Answer: b [Reason:] The commonly used specimen to test compressive strength is a cube. It has 3 dimensions-length, width and height. These cubes are cast in moulds of size 150x150x150mm.
8. Concrete is filled in how many layers in slump cone in slump test.
Answer: d [Reason:] The fresh concrete is filled in slump cone in 4 layers. Each layer is tamped 25 times with a 16mm pointed rod. The specifications are given in IS 1199.
9. Modulus of rupture is calculated using the formula:
Answer: a [Reason:] The modulus of rupture is found out dividing maximum moment M/section factor Z. M is given by PL/6 and Z=1/6bd2.
10. A slump of 50-100mm can be used for:
a) Mass concreting
b) Strip footing
c) Trench fill
Answer: d [Reason:] Slump of higher value gives greater workability, but yields less strength. A slump of 25-75mm can be used for mass concreting and strip footing. A slump of 100-150cm is used for trench fill.
11. How many hoppers are there in compaction factor test?
Answer: c [Reason:] There are 2 hoppers and 1 cylinder in the apparatus. Concrete is poured in hopper A (first one). The hinged bottom is opened, concrete falls to 2nd hopper B. Again, hinged bottom is opened, concrete is allowed to fall into cylinder C.
12. If cylinder specimen is used to test compressive strength, equivalent cubes strength can be
a) 3/4th strength of cylinder
b) 5/4th strength of cylinder
c) 5/6th strength of cylinder
d) 1/4th strength of cylinder
Answer: b [Reason:] This formula is recommended by IS codes. IS 516 gives the details.
1. In a white wash, after how many hours is dissolved gum added to solution?
a) 24 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 1 hour
Answer: a [Reason:] White wash is prepared from fat lime. Fat lime is dissolved in a big drum and it is stirred well. Then, after 24 hours dissolved gum is added to the drum.
2._________ are cheaper varieties of paint.
a) Colour wash
Answer: c [Reason:] Distempers have chalk as base, water as carrier and emulsifying agents like glue or casein. To impart colour, pigments are added.
3. A paint normally consists of _________ components.
Answer: d [Reason:] The six components that comprise paint are base, vehicle, solvent, pigment, filler and drier. Out of these, the base, vehicle and solvent are the important ones.
4. _________ paint gets deteriorated when exposed to sun.
Answer: b [Reason:] Bituminous paint is applied on to iron works under water. It is made by dissolving asphalt or bitumen in oil or petroleum. It has a characteristic black colour.
5. The appearance of glossy patches on the painted surface is called:
Answer: a [Reason:] Flashing is a defect developed on painted surface. It is identified as glossy patches on the surface. It is caused due to poor quality of paint or of workmanship.
6. Which of the below is a pigment imparting brown colour?
a) Raw sienna
c) Burnt sienna
Answer: c [Reason:] Raw sienna imparts yellow colour to paint. To get black colour, soot is added. Blue colour can be obtained by adding ultramarine pigment.
7. The component filler in paint does the function of:
a) Absorbing oxygen
b) Reducing cost
d) Smooth spreading
Answer: b [Reason:] Fillers are added to reduce the cost of paint. Too much addition of it may weakenthe paint. Commonly used ones are alumina, magnesia, barite, charcoal, etc.
8. Saponification is a defect on painted surface and it is identified by the appearance of:
b) Dull patches
d) Soapy patches
Answer: d [Reason:] Saponification leads to the appearance of soapy patches. It occurs due to chemical reaction of alkalis. To avoid this, surface must be cleaned and paint should be kept away from strong alkalis.
9. Which of the below is not an example of base?
a) White lead
c) Zinc oxide
d) Red lead
Answer: b [Reason:] Cobalt is used as a drier. It absorbs oxygen from surroundings and hardens the paints. White lead, zinc oxide and red lead are all examples of base. They have binding properties and form opaque coat.
10. Which paint contains polystyrene as base?
a) Synthetic rubber
Answer: d [Reason:] Emulsion paint contains polystyrene and polyvinyl acetate as base. They are durable and retain their colour for long. They dry within 15 minutes and hard dry within 2 hours.
11. Which defect occurs if paint is applied excessively thick?
Answer: c [Reason:] Grinning occurs when under coat and final coat are of different colours. The opacity is insufficient and background colour is visible. Running occurs if surface is too smooth; paint run off from such parts. Flaking occurs due to poor adhesion, leading to peeling off of paint.
1. __________ instrument is used to sight to an object.
c) Plumbing fork
Answer: d [Reason:] Alidade is straight edge with some form of sighting devise. It can be plain (with slits) or telescopic. It is kept on a plane table and objects are sighted.
2. How many methods of plane table surveying are there?
Answer: b [Reason:] There are four ways to perform plane table surveying. They are radiation, inter-section, traversing and resection. First two are employed for locating details and other two for locating plane table stations.
3. Plane table (PT) surveying is a __________ method.
Answer: a [Reason:] In graphical method of surveying, objects are sighted and taken down as drawings (lines) on a paper. The line gives angle, distance of the object from the station.
4. Plane table is made of:
Answer: c [Reason:] Plane table is a well-seasoned wooden piece. It is polished and a smooth surface is given on top. The middle bottom portion is threaded to attach a tripod.
5. Which of the below is used for levelling a plane table?
a) Plumb bob
b) Spirit level
Answer: b [Reason:] A spirit level is a rectangular box, containing a small bubble inside it. It is placed on table, table is moved and fixed when bubble is centralised.
6. Which of the below is not an advantage of PT survey?
a) Used for accurate works
b) Less costly
c) Field book is not required
d) Rapid method
Answer: a [Reason:] It is used only to locate certain local object. It doesn’t give accurate results and can’t be used for high precision works.
7. How many ways are there to orient a plane table?
Answer: c [Reason:] Orientation refers to the process of keeping table to the position which is occupied at first station. The point on paper and ground should match. It can be done by using through compass and back sighting.
8. Plan table surveying uses the methodology of:
Answer: d [Reason:] Traversing is a methodology where number of connected lines are there whose length is measured using tape/chain and angle using any angle measuring instrument. PT survey uses this methodology.
9. A plumbing fork is used to __________ the plane table.
Answer: b [Reason:] Plumbing fork is also called U-fame. It has a U-shaped frame which can be clamped onto the plane table. The lower end has provision for suspending a plumb bob. It is used to centre the table w.r.t station.
10. In the method of intersection, only one linear measurement is made.
Answer: a [Reason:] Only one linear measurement is made in intersection method. Base line is the line showing distance between two instrument stations. This method is also called graphical triangulation.
11. Which of the below is not a method of doing resection?
a) Back sighting
b) Solving two-point problem
c) Solving three-point problem
d) Solving four-point problem
Answer: d [Reason:] There are four methods to perform resection. They are using compass, by back sighting, solving two-point and three-point problem. There is no method as solving four point problem.
1. Plastering is also called:
Answer: b [Reason:] Pargeting is decorative or water proof plastering that is applied on the walls.
2. __________ is used to ensure that the thickness of plastering is uniform.
a) Bull point
b) Pivot point
c) Bull mark
d) Bench mark
Answer: c [Reason:] It is provided at specific distance to make sure that the required thickness of plastering is even throughout. It is a small rectangular or hexagonal mark.
3. Before plastering, the surface has to be:
Answer: a [Reason:] All the mortar joints and the brick surface has to be slightly scraped so as to obtain a rough surface. Plastering will be able to bond better on to a rough surface.
4. Which IS code gives specifications about cement plaster?
a) IS 1500
b) IS 1221
c) IS 1400
d) IS 1661
Answer: d [Reason:] IS code 1661 deals with the code of practice for the application of cement and cement-lime plastering on buildings.
5. Which of the below is not a plaster type based on material?
Answer: c [Reason:] Plastering requires a binding material and aggregates. The binding material is cementitious-cement, lime and gypsum. Pozzolana are siliceous compounds and possess no cementitious nature as such. When mixed with water, they can act as cementitious material. But are generally not used in plastering.
6. In plastering, the 1st coat is called ___________ and its thickness should be _______ mm.
a) Undercoat, 6-9
b) Floating coat, 6-9
c) Floating coat, 10-15
d) Undercoat, 10-15
Answer: d [Reason:] Plastering can either be done in single, 2 or 3 coats. The 1st coat is undercoat of thickness of 10-15mm. 2nd coat is floating coat of 6-9mm thickness. The last coat is the finishing coat of 2-3mm thickness.
7. ___________ are used to press mortar and spread it uniformly.
b) Aluminium rod
Answer: c [Reason:] Trowel is used for gauging and applying mortar to surface. Aluminium rod is used to strike off excess mortar. Brush is used to clean it.
8. Wood surface requires _________ coats of plastering.
Answer: b [Reason:] Wood and metal surface require 3 coats of plastering, so that the surface is completely safe and sealed. Stone and brick masonry generally requires 2 coats and single coat is done for low cost construction.
9. In a lime-cement plaster, ratio 1:1:6 corresponds to:
Answer: b [Reason:] In plastering, a binding material and fine aggregate is used. Since in lime-cement plaster, 2 binding materials are present, a ratio of both material and sand is taken.
10. Which of the below is not a plaster finish?
b) Pebble dash
c) Sand faced
Answer: d [Reason:] There is no wooden plaster finish available. Rough-cast is provided to external surface using 1:1:3 mortar (cement:sand:coarse aggregates). Pebble or flint dash finish involves embedding 10-20mm sized pebbles or flints in 12mm thick plaster. Sand faced finish is provided with 1:1 mortar.
11. Mud plastering does not require curing.
Answer: a [Reason:] In mud plastering, after 2 coats of plastering, a wash of earth, cow dung and cement in 3:2:1 proportion is done. It does not require curing, but should be allowed to dry in shade for 3-4 days.
1. Every port is a harbour.
Answer: a [Reason:] Harbour is an enclosed area where there is storage, refuelling, loading and unloading of cargo facilities. A port is a harbour which provides all facilities for the transfer of cargo as well as passengers. So, all the ports are harbours.
2. How many components does a harbour comprise of?
Answer: b [Reason:] The various components of a harbour are entrance channel, break water, turning basin, shelter basin, pier, wharf, quay, dry dock, wet dock and jetty.
3. The entrance channel ranges from:
Answer: d [Reason:] The ships enter the harbour from a wide water area, which is called entrance channel. The width is 100m for small harbour, 100-160m for medium and 160-260 for large harbour.
4. The solid parallel platform in a harbour with berthing facility on one side only is:
Answer: c [Reason:] A pier is the platform parallel to the shore with berthing possible on both sides, a quay provides berthing on one side and retains earth on other side. A jetty is the platform that is perpendicular to shoreline.
5. ____________ is a type of utility based harbour.
a) River harbour
b) Artificial harbour
c) Commercial harbour
d) Canal harbour
Answer: c [Reason:] The commercial harbour provides facilities for loading/unloading of cargo. An artificial harbour is based on the protection needed. (Manmade to protect from storms/waves). River and canal harbours are based on the location of these.
6. The open type of wharves are made of:
c) Timber, R.C.C. or both
d) Earth or rock fill
Answer: c [Reason:] These have high level decks which are supported by piles and are made of timber, R.C.C or both together. Sometimes stressed slab or beam is also used. The solid type wharves are made of earth or rock fill with the bottom made of structures like steel pile cells.
7. The marine structure located alongside or at entrance of a pier or a wharf is:
a) Pier heads
Answer: b [Reason:] These structures provide mooring facilities for ships, absorb impact force and shorten the length of a pier or a wharf.
8. The ferry designs are dependent on:
b) Length of route
c) Country where it is used
d) Weather conditions
Answer: b [Reason:] The ferry designs depend on factors like passenger capacity, speed, water conditions and length of route; ex- a double ended ferry used in States Island, Washington, which has interchangeable sterns & bows to shuttle the route without turning around.
9. The alignment of breakwater should be:
Answer: b [Reason:] Breakwater is a protection barrier constructed to protect the harbour from the effect of sea waves. Its alignment should be straight with intersection angle within 60o & sometimes curved in open sea to reduce effect of waves.