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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Airports can be classified on how many basis?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The airports can be classified into 4 on the basis of take-off and landing, geometric design, based on aircraft approach speed (FAA) and function.

2. ICAO classification system considers how many things?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The ICAO classification system is based on geometric designs broadly. It mainly considers 2 things for its classification – length of the runway and on basis of wing span and outer main gear wheel span.

3. The FAA classification of airport is based on:
a) Function
b) Geometric design
c) Airport approach speed
d) Length of Runway

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The FAA or Federal Aviation Administration classifies on the basis of the aircraft approach speed, given in knots. They are ranging from category A<91 knots to category E>186 knots.

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of centralised system of the terminal Area?
a) Passengers, cargo routed centrally
b) Passenger facilities in small units
c) Walking distance to aircraft < 200m
d) Common facilities for different gate positions

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The passenger facilities are arranged in smaller units or provided separately at different locations in a decentralised system. Each unit will have aircraft gate positions.

5. Which of the below does not affect the site-selection of an airport site?
a) Adequate access
b) Air traffic potential
c) Sufficient airspace
d) Number of ground staff

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The other 3 options are the specific aspects on which the site-selection is dependent. The site should be accessible by people easily from different locations, there should be potential for air traffic – flight or passenger and sufficient airspace for airports without obstruction. The ground staff is considered depending on size of airport.

6. Runways are oriented in a direction against the prevailing wind.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The runways are oriented in the direction of the wind so that it can utilize the force provided by the wind for take-off and landing of the aircraft.

7. The wind intensity during calm period in runways should be:
a) Below 4.6km/hr
b) Above 5km/hr
c) Between 5-10 km/hr
d) Below 6.4km/hr

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The wind intensity should remain below 6.4km/hr during calm period and it is the same for all wind direction. It is equal to 100 minus the total wind coverage.

8. The application of __________ diagram is used to find the orientation of runway to get the desired wind coverage.
a) Wind Butterfly
b) Wind Cycle
c) Wind Star
d) Wind Rose

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] An average date of around 5-10 years of the various components of wind (intensity, duration and direction) of the area is compiled to make a Wind Rose diagram. The entire area of the airport is divided into 16 equal parts at angles of 22.5o. The wind coverage in each of the small quadrants is then studied for the orientation of the runway.

9. Elevation of airport site above MSL is a factor that controls airport size.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is one of the factors. As the elevation increases, the meteorological conditions like air pressure and density reduces. As a result, bigger size of facilities has to be provided.

10. How many type of Fly Rules are there?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] There are 2 fly rules; the VFR (Visual Flight Rules) and IFR (Instrumental Fly Rules). The VFR allows the aircraft to be operated within reasonable conditions by oneself. In IFR, the operations are entirely controlled by instruments. A flight plan is required in both cases.

Set 2

1. How many types of impact assessments are there?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The four key types are global assessments, policy impact assessment, strategic environmental assessment and environmental impact assessment.

2. Environmental impacts can of _________ types
a) 3
b) 5
c) 4
d) 2

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] They may be primary or direct and secondary or indirect. The primary impacts are the first round impacts like pollution, displacement of people, etc. The ones that extend from these are secondary impacts.

3. A short-term environmental impact assessment (EIA) has time period of:
a) 2-5 years
b) 10-15 years
c) 5-10 years
d) 5-7 years

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] EIA can be classified as short term and long term. 5-10 years time period denotes short term and above 50 years is long term.

4. EIAs commenced in the year:
a) 1960s
b) 1890s
c) 1880s
d) 1950s

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In 1960s, when environmental depletion was on a hike, to create awareness and check the environmental deterioration, EIAs were formulated.

5. How many stages are there in EIA?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] There are four stages or levels in EIA. They are local level, regional level, national level and global level.

6. Domestic demand for water can be assessed using:
a) X.Y.Z
b) H.I.J
c) A.B.C
d) P.Q.R

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Water quality is an important part to be checked in EIA. It can be domestic and commercial use of water. X stands for litres of water per capita, Y for number of people per household and Z for number of dwelling units.

7. _________ divided methodologies for EIA into ___________ categories.
a) Warner, 4
b) Bisset, 4
c) Warner, 5
d) Bisset, 5

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Any methodology can be used to perform EIA. Warner in 1973, divided available methodologies into 5 categories. They are ad hoc, overlay techniques, checklists, matrices and networks.

8. Water Act is a main law in action used for EIA formulated in __________
a) 1981
b) 1974
c) 1975
d) 1986

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) of India has some main laws in action for EIA. They are Water Act, Air Act, Wildlife Act, Environmental Act and Biological Diversity Act.

Set 3

1. Which is the latest version of AutoCAD software?
a) 2016
b) 2017
c) 2018
d) 2019

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] AutoCAD 2018 is the latest version. It has improved save performance, improved 2D Graphics, 3D navigation performance, AutoCAD mobile app and updated DWG file format.

2. Which key is used to obtain properties palette in AutoCAD?
a) Control+1
b) Control+2
c) Control+3
d) Control+4

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Control+2 gives design centre palette, control+3 gives tools palette. Control+4 is not an option.

3. AutoCAD was first released in the year:
a) 1858
b) 1966
c) 1898
d) 1982

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] It was released in December, 1982. It was a desktop app running on micro-computer with internal graphics controllers.

4. How many units are available in AutoCAD?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 7
d) 6

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The units are architectural (feet & inches), decimals, engineering (inches), Fractional and scientific (10e form).

5. Which mode allows user to draw 90o straight lines :
a) Osnap
b) Ortho
c) Linear
d) Polar tracking

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ortho mode can be activated using F8 Key. It enables user to draw straight lines (90o) by restricting the cursor to 90o only.

6. To obtain parallel lines, concentric circles and parallel curves; _________ is used.
a) Array
b) Fillet
c) Copy
d) Offset

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] It can be activated by typing letter O. The offset distance and side is to be specified by user.

7. The default grid spacing in both X and Y directions is:
a) 10
b) 20
c) 5
d) 15

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The spacing in each grid is 10 in both direction. It can be altered by right clicking on grid button at the bottom of screen. A grid settings dialogue box will appear and changes can be made.

8. How many workspaces are available in AutoCAD?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] There are three workspaces available to switch between in AutoCAD. These are drafting and annotation, 3D basics and 3D modelling.

9. Scale command can be accessed easily by typing:
a) SL
b) S
c) SC
d) C

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Scale command is used to increase/decrease the size of an object. It can be accessed by typing SC. To increase scale, value greater than 1 is given. Values between 0 and 1 can be used to decrease scale.

10. Which command is used to divide object into segments having predefined length?
a) Divide
b) Chamfer
c) Trim
d) Measure

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Measure command divides object into segments of predefined length. Divide option divides object into n number of equal segments.

11. How many grip points does a circle have?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A grip point appears as blue colour when an object is selected. Using these, an object can be modified. A circle has 5 trip points. One in centre, 4 at each quadrant. basic-civil-engineering-questions-answers-autocad-q11

Set 4

1. How many types of bench mark are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Bench mark is an object bearing a marked point whose elevation above or below a datum is known. The 2 types are temporary and permanent bench mark.

2. The difference between magnetic north and geographic north is:
a) Dip
b) Strike
c) Declination
d) Bearing

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Declination is determined using the compass. The error is calculated and the necessary addition or deduction is carried out.

3. In triangulation method, the whole area is divided into:
a) Scale triangles
b) Triangles
c) Obtuse triangles
d) Well-conditioned triangles

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Well-conditioned triangles are those triangles with angle less than or equal to 60o. The plot is divided into such triangles, as it is the easiest figure that can be plotted and analysed.

4. A stone that marks boundary is called:
a) Merestone
b) Milestone
c) Metestone
d) Linestone

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] If a stone is used to mark a boundary, it is called Merestone. If a tree is on the property line, it is called a Line tree.

5. Which of the below is not a classification of surveying?
a) Marine
b) Basement
c) Astronomical
d) Land

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Based on place of survey, the classification includes land, marine and astronomical categories. Basement refers to underground, no survey is performed there.

6. EDM stands for:
a) Errorless Distance Measurement
b) Electronic Direct Measurement
c) Electronic Distance Measurement
d) Errorless Direct Measurement

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] To locate points, measure angles, distance and perform other surveying operations, an EDM can be used. It gives all the details with a click of button. Total station is an example of EDM.

7. Plane and geodetic surveying are classification of surveying based on:
a) Methodology
b) Earth’s curvature
c) Object of survey
d) Instrument

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Based on Earth’s curvature to be considered or not while surveying, plane and geodetic surveying are there. Earth’s curvature is considered in geodetic and not considered in plane surveying.

8. _________ errors are small unavoidable fluctuation.
a) Random
b) Gross
c) Systematic
d) Mistake

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Those errors which are made while performing survey are called gross errors. These can accumulate and finally lead to re-doing the whole procedure. Systematic error follows a consistent pattern.

9. Plan is a small-scale representation of a large area.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Map is a small-scale representation of a large area. Plan is a large-scale representation of a small area.

10. Which of the below is not a means of linear surveying methods?
a) Theodolite
b) EDM
c) Tape
d) Chain

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Theodolite is an instrument used to measure angular readings. It is used in angular surveying. All other options are used to take linear measurements.

11. The term Gore is used to indicate:
a) Rectangular land
b) Perimeter of a land
c) Thin triangular land
d) A measure of distance

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Gore is a thin triangular piece of land. Metes and bounds are used to describe perimeter of parcel of land. Mete is a measurement of distance.

12. An acre is equal to 107,639 square feet.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] An acre is equal to 43,560 square feet. A hectare is equal to 2.471 acres or 107,639 square feet.

Set 5

1. Biodiversity can be broadly classified into how many types?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The three types are species diversity (number of the different species found in location), Genetic diversity (genetic variations within a species) and Ecological diversity (variations in the ecosystems of regions).

2. Biodiversity is of importance as it offers:
a) Stability of ecosystems
b) Stability of atmosphere
c) Stability of species
d) Stability of research

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Biodiversity helps in maintaining ecological stability. The ecosystems have an ability to maintain its original nature even after disturbances occur within it, with the help of biodiversity.

3. The loss in biodiversity is not attributed to:
a) Explosion in human population
b) Transforming earth’s surface
c) Destruction of natural habitats
d) Use of sustainable products

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The ever-exploding increase in human population leads to the consumption of resources and exploitation of the earth’s surface. This results in destruction of natural habitats and ecosystems. The use of sustainable alternatives is a step towards conservation.

4. Biodiversity has an aesthetic value to it.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The natural beauty of the earth has refreshing sights, taste and odours. These add an aesthetic value; wide varieties of colours and fragrance of flowers, taste and colours of fruits, etc.

5. In how many ways does the conservation of biodiversity work?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The conservation methods are broadly classified as in-situ conservation (the species are conserved in their natural ecosystems, which are protected) and ex-situ conservation (breeding of new and endangered plants/animals in controlled conditions).

6. Which one of the following is not an in-situ conservation method?
a) Zoo
b) National Parks
c) Biosphere Reserves
d) Sanctuaries

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Zoo is a controlled environment where animals are kept. The other 3 options are the natural habitat or areas where the species reside.

7. Which is an advantage of ex-situ conservation?
a) Cheap method
b) Conserve large number of species together
c) Genetic process for breeding/long life
d) Existence in natural habitat

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Endangered plants/animals can be provided the conditions required for larger life with captive breeding and genetic techniques for development of the species which are healthy and more productive.

8. The area of National Parks range between:
a) 0.61 to 7818 kms
b) 0.04 to 3162 kms
c) 0.14 to 3612 kms
d) 0.16 to 8718 kms

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] National Parks are small reserves maintained by the Government for the protection of wildlife and their habitat. 0.61 to 7818 kms is the range for sanctuaries.

9. The activities of cultivation of land, timber harvesting is permitted in:
a) Sanctuaries
b) National Parks
c) Biosphere Reserves
d) Protected Areas

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Sanctuaries are the areas where only wildlife is present. So, cultivation, harvesting of timber, etc is permitted only if does not interfere with the project. In all the other 3 options, it is prohibited.

10. Hot spot areas have:
a) Low density of biodiversity
b) Only endangered plants
c) High density of hot springs
d) High density of biodiversity

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] There are areas with high density of biodiversity, which are presently the most endangered. There are 16 hot spots in the world and 2 in India: North East Himalayas with 3500 endemic species and Western Ghats with 1600.