Multiple choice question for engineering
1. Tina eats a few legumes and walnuts and on some days she has egg with grains and nuts as breakfast. The first set are plant sources and the second a mixture of plant and animal sources. Are both the sets high quality proteins? Does this sentence stand true or False?
2. Which of the following sentences is untrue with respect to proteins?
a) Lysine is an essential amino acid.
b) The requirement of essential amino acids per kg of protein is called ‘reference pattern of amino acids’
c) Limiting amino acid content is the amino acid found in maximum quantity in the protein
d) There are 20 amino acids in the protein we require everyday
3. Which of the following terms refers to the amount of protein absorbed by the body from a food source?
a) None of the mentioned
b) Limiting Value
c) Reference pattern
d) Biological Value
4. Which of the following is untrue?
a) Biological Value of plant sources is more than animal sources
b) BV value of egg white is 100 that means almost the entire amount of nitrogen in egg white can be absorbed and used by the body
c) Food energy is the amount of energy available from food through respiration
d) Fats have the maximum amount of food energy
5. Mina’s understanding of proteins in various food items is as given. Which of the following is untrue?
a) The difference in the taste and texture in milk curd and chicken muscle is due to the arrangement of amino acids in the long chains of theirs to form proteins.
b) Protein chains are perpendicular in a chicken breast
c) Proteins are changed physically from precipitate to gel and solution or vice-versa
d) Egg-white is an example of gel to precipitate
6. Mina notices various changes in proteins when they’re subjected to chemical physical change. Which of the following was wrongly understood by her?
a) When egg-white is heated it is irreversibly denatured that is its spatial and molecular arrangement changes
b) When milk is coagulated by acid and heat, protein precipitates which is curd.
c) When meat is cooked, protein chains shrink and hence it shrinks
d) Mina perfectly understood all the concepts
7. Which of the following is incorrect?
a) Controlled cheese ripening is controlling some protein break down
b) Proteins form films
c) Egg white cannot be whipped
d) If proteins are over-whipped, the film breaks, foam collapses
8. Which of the following is untrue?
a) Vitamins are inorganic elements whereas minerals are organic elements
b) Fats soluble vitamins have more tendency to lead to hypervitaminosis
c) Fat soluble vitamins are absorbed by lipids in the intestinal tract
d) B and C are water soluble vitamins
9. Which of the following is untrue?
a) Gut flora produces Vitamin K and Biotin in the intestine
b) Vitamin D is synthesized in the skin
c) Humans can produce some vitamins from precursors that they consume
d) None of the mentioned
10. Which of the following is untrue?
a) Primary deficiency occurs when any vitamin is not consumed in the minimum required amount
b) Secondary deficiency occurs when proper absorption of the vitamins doesn’t take place
c) Overdosing from vitamin supplementation is possible
d) None of the mentioned
1. Which of the following is used for shredding meat in the food industry?
a) Ball mill
b) Hammer mill
c) Knife cutter
d) All of the mentioned
2. Which of the following food operation does NOT use the principle of size reduction for its operation?
a) Slaughtering of birds for food
b) Trimming of fish to remove inedible portions
c) Mincing of meat
d) None of the mentioned
3. 4 screens can separate _____ differently sized particles.
4. Statement 1: As mesh size increases, aperture size decreases.
Statement 2: In British standards, the ratio of the aperture size of two consecutive screens is a ratio of 1.412.
a) True, False
b) True, True
c) False, False
d) False, True
5. With respect to the Tyler series, which of the following is true?
a) The ratio of one mess size to the intermediate mesh will have the ratio of 4th root of 2
b) Intermediate messes cannot be accommodated in the Tyler series
c) Intermediate meshes can be accommodated in British series only
d) None of the mentioned
6. In differential screen analysis, for calculating the particle size of the food particles on any one sieve, the average food particle size on that sieve is the mean of the screen opening of that sieve and the sieve below it.
7. Which of the following is NOT a reason to affect the effectiveness of a screen?
a) Broken mesh wires
b) Insufficient time for food particles to pass through the sieve
c) Blocked apertures
d) None of the mentioned
8. Stationary screens can be used for wet particles.
9. Statement 1: Gyratory screens are used when it is a continuous operation to be handled and the amount of material to be handled is very high.
10. The overall effectiveness of sieve equipment is the _____ of the effectiveness of the underflow and the overflow separately.
1. Which of the following is not a type of rolling mill?
a) Two-high rolling mill
b) Cluster rolling mill
c) Separation rolling mill
d) Tandem rolling mill
2. In two high rolling mill, what is the direction of rolling of the two rollers?
3. In two high rolling mill, if the direction of the rollers is reversed, what is it called?
a) Two high backward mill
b) Two high beneath mill
c) Two high reversing mill
d) Two high anti mill
4. In three high rolling mill, what is the direction of rolling of the three rollers?
a) Clockwise-clockwise- clockwise
b) Clockwise-anticlockwise- anticlockwise
c) Clockwise-anticlockwise- clockwise
d) Anticlockwise-anticlockwise-anti clockwise
5. How many rollers are used in four high rolling mill?
6. The desired shape and cross section of the billet is achieved in one pass.
7. Which of the following property does not improve in hot rolling process, of a cast?
b) Shock resistance
d) Boiling point
8. Which of the following articles cannot be made from rolling?
9. Before beginning the process, the ingots are heated up to what temperature?
10. In hot rolling process, velocity of material at exit is lowest.
1. T protein is required for replication. It is a product of:
a) delayed early transcription
b) late transcription
c) early transcription
d) both early and late replication
2. Vaccinia virus, is a commonly used virus and it is a member of pox virus family. It has a large genome of _____ and can accept at least ____ of foreign DNA.
a) 200kb, 25kb
b) 1000kb, 200kb
c) 500kb, 50kb
d) 800kb, 100kb
3. Vaccinia virus produces its own ______ , which is functional in _____ of infected cells where the virus also replicates.
a) DNA polymerase, nucleus
b) DNA polymerase, cytoplasm
c) RNA polymerase, cytoplasm
d) RNA polymerase, nucleus
4. It is beneficial to use retrovirus for genetic manipulation of cells in the culture. Is the given statement true or false?
5. LNSX is a retrovirus and is combined with ______ in order to create a shuttle vector.
a) eukaryotic plasmid
b) prokaryotic plasmid
c) either eukaryotic or prokaryotic plasmid
d) yeast plasmid
6. The retroviral transfected DNA is infected into mammalian cells by helper retrovirus. Helper retrovirus should not be packaged and the method adopted for this is?
a) Deletion of the packaging signal in the helper genome
b) Deletion of multiple parts of the helper genome
c) Division of the helper genome into several pieces
d) All the above given methods can be adopted
7. Choose the incorrect statement in respect to MACs.
a) They are mammalian or human artificial chromosomes
b) Large stretches of DNA (in excess of 100 kb) can be inserted
c) A selectable marker is required
d) It can be maintained for long term
8. Centromere is the most important component of the human artificial chromosome. It is constructed from tandemly repeated copies of 171 bp of ______ DNA sequence.
a) alpha satellite
b) beta satellite
c) satellite 2
d) satellite 1
9. Constitutive promoters are majorly obtained from:
c) mammalian cells
d) viral cells
10. In naturally occurring bacterial systems, tetracycline binding repressor protein, binds in the _____ of tetracycline to the control sequence and _______ transcription.
a) presence, activates
b) absence, activates
c) absence, inactivates
d) presence, inactivates
11. Tetracycline binding repressor protein when fused to transcription activator protein from herpes simple virus, then it is called as transactivator protein (tTA). Is the given statement true or false?
12. Expression of tTA gene is ________ by doxycycline which is _______ analogue.
a) activated, tetracycline
b) inactivated, chloramphenicol
c) activated, chloramphenicol
d) inactivated, tetracycline
13. Glucorticoid-responsive element is ______ promoter from ______ of mouse mammory tumour virus (MMTV).
a) inducible, short terminal repeat region
b) inducible, long terminal repeat region
c) constitutive, short terminal repeat region
d) constitutive, long terminal repeat region
14. There are a group of promoters from the genes for metallothioneins. These are a group of proteins rich in ______ residues.
c) either cysteine or methionine
d) cysteine and methionine both
15. The amount of expression of DNA inserted into a vector _______ on promoter and ______ on chromosomal location.
a) depends only on, not depends
b) depends, depends also
c) doesn’t depends, but depends
d) neither depends, nor depends
1. Isoschizomers are defined as:
a) enzymes having same recognition sequence and always cutting at the same site
b) enzymes having same recognition sequence and always cutting at different site
c) enzymes having different recognition site and cutting at the same site
d) enzymes having same recognition site and they may or may not cut at the same site
2. Isocaudomers are defined as the enzymes which recognize different sequence but generate same ends. Which of the following pairs of enzymes can be termed as isocuadomers?
a) DpnI (GA|TC) and Sau3A (|GATC)
b) BamHI (G|GATCC) and Sau3A (|GATC)
c) DpnI (GA|TC) and BglII (A|GATCT)
d) XbaI (T|CTAGA) and BamHI (G|GATCC)
3. The specificity of enzyme is affected by the concentration of buffer used. This phenomenon is termed as:
a) star activity
b) specificity elevation
c) concentration gradient effects
d) diamond activity
4. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to a unit of enzyme?
a) One unit of enzyme is defined as the amount of enzyme required to digest 1miligram of standard DNA in a specific time of 1hr and under given temperature conditions
b) The amount of enzyme required doesn’t vary with the number of sites present in the DNA
c) If more number of sites is there in the DNA more units of enzyme are required in comparison to same amount of DNA with fewer sites
d) The amount of enzyme required for digestion of DNA with less number of sites is more than that of more number of sites in the same amount of DNA
5. Which of the following statement is correct regarding partial digestion?
a) It is defined as the conditions where all the sites in the DNA sequence are not recognized
b) The number of fragments created by partial digestion are same as that of complete digestion
c) It is not useful in representation of genomic library
d) Exactly half of the sites in the DNA are recognized
6. Which of the following is the correct nomenclature of a restriction enzyme obtained from the first activity of strain R of Escherichia coli ?
7. Why is DNase preferred over restriction endonuclease in some cases?
a) DNase is preferred over restriction endonuclease in some cases because the latter are not able to recognize some of the restriction sites
b) DNase is more specific as restriction endonuclease, so the required fragment is obtained
c) DNase is less specific as compared to restriction endonuclease, hence there are more chances of representation of all the possible fragments
d) DNase is abundant in comparison the restriction endonuclease
8. The ends created by use of DNase have unique single stranded sequences.
9. Besides enzymatic means, physical stress can also be used for cleaving the DNA. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Sonication, needles, syringes etc. all come under the category of physical stress
b) In physical stress, there are no chances of contamination
c) The ends obtained have unique sequences
d) They are less effective than DNase treatment
10. Phosphatases refer to:
a) the enzymes which add phosphate group at the end of the DNA molecule in the place of hydroxyl group
b) the enzymes which hydrolytically remove phosphate group from the DNA molecules and replace them with hydroxyl group
c) the enzymes responsible for removal of phosphate group from the DNA molecules and replace them with hydrogen
d) the enzymes responsible for replacing hydrogen in the DNA molecules with the phosphate group
11. How is phosphatase related to the ligation reactions?
a) Phosphate group is not required for the ligation reaction to take place, thus phosphatase is helpful
b) It is helpful in ceasing the unwanted ligation
c) Phosphatases are not at all related to ligation reactions
d) They act as a catalyst in case of ligation reaction
12. How can phosphatase activity terminated prior to a ligation reaction?
a) By heating
b) By cooling
c) By creating vibrations
d) By alternatively cooling and heating