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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Tina eats a few legumes and walnuts and on some days she has egg with grains and nuts as breakfast. The first set are plant sources and the second a mixture of plant and animal sources. Are both the sets high quality proteins? Does this sentence stand true or False?
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Either a large quantity of plant sources ( option 1) or a small portion of animal sources with large quantities of plant sources(option 2) serve as high quality proteins. Hence both the diets are healthy.

2. Which of the following sentences is untrue with respect to proteins?
a) Lysine is an essential amino acid.
b) The requirement of essential amino acids per kg of protein is called ‘reference pattern of amino acids’
c) Limiting amino acid content is the amino acid found in maximum quantity in the protein
d) There are 20 amino acids in the protein we require everyday

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Limiting amino acid content is the amino acid found in least quantity in the protein.

3. Which of the following terms refers to the amount of protein absorbed by the body from a food source?
a) None of the mentioned
b) Limiting Value
c) Reference pattern
d) Biological Value

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Biological Value (BV) refers to the amount of protein absorbed by the body from a food source.

4. Which of the following is untrue?
a) Biological Value of plant sources is more than animal sources
b) BV value of egg white is 100 that means almost the entire amount of nitrogen in egg white can be absorbed and used by the body
c) Food energy is the amount of energy available from food through respiration
d) Fats have the maximum amount of food energy

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Biological Value of animal sources is more than plant sources.

5. Mina’s understanding of proteins in various food items is as given. Which of the following is untrue?
a) The difference in the taste and texture in milk curd and chicken muscle is due to the arrangement of amino acids in the long chains of theirs to form proteins.
b) Protein chains are perpendicular in a chicken breast
c) Proteins are changed physically from precipitate to gel and solution or vice-versa
d) Egg-white is an example of gel to precipitate

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Protein chains are parallel in a chicken breast

6. Mina notices various changes in proteins when they’re subjected to chemical physical change. Which of the following was wrongly understood by her?
a) When egg-white is heated it is irreversibly denatured that is its spatial and molecular arrangement changes
b) When milk is coagulated by acid and heat, protein precipitates which is curd.
c) When meat is cooked, protein chains shrink and hence it shrinks
d) Mina perfectly understood all the concepts

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] All the mentioned changes are correct.

7. Which of the following is incorrect?
a) Controlled cheese ripening is controlling some protein break down
b) Proteins form films
c) Egg white cannot be whipped
d) If proteins are over-whipped, the film breaks, foam collapses

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Proteins form films hence egg white can be whipped.

8. Which of the following is untrue?
a) Vitamins are inorganic elements whereas minerals are organic elements
b) Fats soluble vitamins have more tendency to lead to hypervitaminosis
c) Fat soluble vitamins are absorbed by lipids in the intestinal tract
d) B and C are water soluble vitamins

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Vitamins are organic elements whereas minerals are inorganic elements.

9. Which of the following is untrue?
a) Gut flora produces Vitamin K and Biotin in the intestine
b) Vitamin D is synthesized in the skin
c) Humans can produce some vitamins from precursors that they consume
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] All of the above sentences are correct.

10. Which of the following is untrue?
a) Primary deficiency occurs when any vitamin is not consumed in the minimum required amount
b) Secondary deficiency occurs when proper absorption of the vitamins doesn’t take place
c) Overdosing from vitamin supplementation is possible
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] All of the above sentences are correct.

Set 2

1. Which of the following is used for shredding meat in the food industry?
a) Ball mill
b) Hammer mill
c) Knife cutter
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A knife cutter which is basically a rotating plate with several knives which is used for shredding meat in the food industry

2. Which of the following food operation does NOT use the principle of size reduction for its operation?
a) Slaughtering of birds for food
b) Trimming of fish to remove inedible portions
c) Mincing of meat
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Slaughtering of birds for food involves cutting. Trimming of fish to remove inedible portions and mincing of meat are also food operations which require size reduction methods.

3. 4 screens can separate _____ differently sized particles.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] 4 screens can separate 5 differently sized particles. The number of particle sizes that can be obtained from n number of screens is always n+1.

4. Statement 1: As mesh size increases, aperture size decreases.
Statement 2: In British standards, the ratio of the aperture size of two consecutive screens is a ratio of 1.412.
a) True, False
b) True, True
c) False, False
d) False, True

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] As mesh size increases, aperture size decreases. Mesh size refers to the number of mesh openings present in one inch. Hence as the aperture seize increases, the number of meshes per inch decrease. In Tyler series, the ratio of the aperture size of two consecutive screens is a ratio of 1.412. (Square root of 2)

5. With respect to the Tyler series, which of the following is true?
a) The ratio of one mess size to the intermediate mesh will have the ratio of 4th root of 2
b) Intermediate messes cannot be accommodated in the Tyler series
c) Intermediate meshes can be accommodated in British series only
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Intermediate meshes can be accommodated in Tyler series and the ratio of one mess size to the intermediate mesh will have the ratio of 4th root of 2

6. In differential screen analysis, for calculating the particle size of the food particles on any one sieve, the average food particle size on that sieve is the mean of the screen opening of that sieve and the sieve below it.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In differential screen analysis, for calculating the particle size of the food particles on any one sieve, the average food particle size on that sieve is the mean of the screen opening of that sieve and the sieve above it.

7. Which of the following is NOT a reason to affect the effectiveness of a screen?
a) Broken mesh wires
b) Insufficient time for food particles to pass through the sieve
c) Blocked apertures
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] All of the mentioned are valid reasons that affect the effectiveness of the screen.

8. Stationary screens can be used for wet particles.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Stationary screens only rely upon gravity for the settling and movement of particles from one screen to another. Hence they cannot be used for wet particles.

9. Statement 1: Gyratory screens are used when it is a continuous operation to be handled and the amount of material to be handled is very high.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Gyratory screens are used when it is a continuous operation to be handled and the amount of material to be handled is very high.

10. The overall effectiveness of sieve equipment is the _____ of the effectiveness of the underflow and the overflow separately.
a) Addition
b) Multiplication
c) Difference
d) Division

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The overall effectiveness of sieve equipment is the multiplication of the effectiveness of the underflow and the overflow separately.

Set 3

1. Which of the following is not a type of rolling mill?
a) Two-high rolling mill
b) Cluster rolling mill
c) Separation rolling mill
d) Tandem rolling mill

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Among two-high rolling mill, cluster rolling mill, separation rolling mill and tandem rolling mill. Separation rolling mill is not a type of rolling mills.

2. In two high rolling mill, what is the direction of rolling of the two rollers?
a) Clockwise-anticlockwise
b) Clockwise-clockwise
c) Anticlockwise-Anticlockwise
d) Stationery-clockwise

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In two high rolling mill, the direction of both the rollers is opposite to one another. Hence, one clockwise while other anti-clockwise.

3. In two high rolling mill, if the direction of the rollers is reversed, what is it called?
a) Two high backward mill
b) Two high beneath mill
c) Two high reversing mill
d) Two high anti mill

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In two high rolling mill, if the direction of the roller is reversed, then that system is called as, two high reversing mill.

4. In three high rolling mill, what is the direction of rolling of the three rollers?
a) Clockwise-clockwise- clockwise
b) Clockwise-anticlockwise- anticlockwise
c) Clockwise-anticlockwise- clockwise
d) Anticlockwise-anticlockwise-anti clockwise

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In three high rolling mill, the direction of the rollers in the top and bottom are the same, and the direction of the roller in the middle is opposite to the two.

5. How many rollers are used in four high rolling mill?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 8
d) 14

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In four high rolling mill, there are four rolls employed for roliing. The direction of two rollers is the same and the remaining two rollers roll in opposite directions.

6. The desired shape and cross section of the billet is achieved in one pass.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The shape and the cross section shape of the billet, which is desired is not obtained in one single pass. One may have to use multiple pass to achieve desired cross section shape.

7. Which of the following property does not improve in hot rolling process, of a cast?
a) Ductility
b) Shock resistance
c) Toughness
d) Boiling point

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] When a rolled stack is made, there is an improvement seen in the physical properties of the material, it does not affect the boiling point of the material.

8. Which of the following articles cannot be made from rolling?
a) Rails
b) Helmets
c) Bars
d) Plates

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Rolling is very useful for making articles like bars, plates and rails, but it cannot be used for making, helmets. For making helmets, different methods of casting is used.

9. Before beginning the process, the ingots are heated up to what temperature?
a) 1000°C
b) 1200°C
c) 1400°C
d) 1600°C

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The material ingot is known for sustaining high temperature and heat conditions. Before the process begins, the ingot is fired using a gas and brought up to a temperature of 1200°C.

10. In hot rolling process, velocity of material at exit is lowest.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In hot rolling process, the velocity of material at entry is lower than the velocity at exit.

Set 4

1. T protein is required for replication. It is a product of:
a) delayed early transcription
b) late transcription
c) early transcription
d) both early and late replication

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] T protein is required for replication and it is a product of early transcription. If T protein is absent, the introduction of DNA takes place only by integration.

2. Vaccinia virus, is a commonly used virus and it is a member of pox virus family. It has a large genome of _____ and can accept at least ____ of foreign DNA.
a) 200kb, 25kb
b) 1000kb, 200kb
c) 500kb, 50kb
d) 800kb, 100kb

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Vaccinia virus is a commonly used virus. It is having a large genome of size 200kb and can atleast accept foreign DNA of size 25kb.

3. Vaccinia virus produces its own ______ , which is functional in _____ of infected cells where the virus also replicates.
a) DNA polymerase, nucleus
b) DNA polymerase, cytoplasm
c) RNA polymerase, cytoplasm
d) RNA polymerase, nucleus

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Vaccinia virus produces its own RNA polymerase which is functional in the cytoplasm of infected cells and virus also replicates here.

4. It is beneficial to use retrovirus for genetic manipulation of cells in the culture. Is the given statement true or false?
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Use of retrovirus is quite beneficial for manipulation of cells in the culture. It is so because they infect the susceptible cells with great efficiency and bring about stable integration.

5. LNSX is a retrovirus and is combined with ______ in order to create a shuttle vector.
a) eukaryotic plasmid
b) prokaryotic plasmid
c) either eukaryotic or prokaryotic plasmid
d) yeast plasmid

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] LNSX is a retrovirus and is combined with a prokaryotic plasmid so that it can act as a shuttle vector. The retrovirus contains neomycin resistance gene as a selectable marker and a promoter.

6. The retroviral transfected DNA is infected into mammalian cells by helper retrovirus. Helper retrovirus should not be packaged and the method adopted for this is?
a) Deletion of the packaging signal in the helper genome
b) Deletion of multiple parts of the helper genome
c) Division of the helper genome into several pieces
d) All the above given methods can be adopted

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Helper retrovirus is used for introduction of transfected DNA into mammalian cells. But it is necessary that helper retrovirus itself should not be packaged. It can be achieved by deletion of the packaging signal in the helper genome, deletion of multiple parts of the helper genome and division of the helper genome into several pieces.

7. Choose the incorrect statement in respect to MACs.
a) They are mammalian or human artificial chromosomes
b) Large stretches of DNA (in excess of 100 kb) can be inserted
c) A selectable marker is required
d) It can be maintained for long term

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Nowdays, MACs have been developed and they are the mammalian or human artificial chromosomes. They can carry large stretches of DNA and can be maintained for long term without the requirement of being selected.

8. Centromere is the most important component of the human artificial chromosome. It is constructed from tandemly repeated copies of 171 bp of ______ DNA sequence.
a) alpha satellite
b) beta satellite
c) satellite 2
d) satellite 1

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Centromere is the most important component of the human artificial chromosome. It is constructed from tandemly repeated copies of 171 bp of alpha satellite DNA sequence. There are other satellite DNA sequences such as beta, satellite 1 and 2.

9. Constitutive promoters are majorly obtained from:
a) fungi
b) bacteria
c) mammalian cells
d) viral cells

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Constitutive promoters are majorly obtained from viral cells. They commonly include, SV40 promoters, adenovirus major late promoter etc. In some cases they are also obtained from mammalian cells.

10. In naturally occurring bacterial systems, tetracycline binding repressor protein, binds in the _____ of tetracycline to the control sequence and _______ transcription.
a) presence, activates
b) absence, activates
c) absence, inactivates
d) presence, inactivates

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In naturally occurring bacterial systems, tetracycline binding repressor protein binds in the absence of tetracycline to the control sequence tet0 and inactivates transcription.

11. Tetracycline binding repressor protein when fused to transcription activator protein from herpes simple virus, then it is called as transactivator protein (tTA). Is the given statement true or false?
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Transactivator protein is the protein formed by fusion of tetracycline binding repressor protein to the transcription activator protein from herpes simple virus. The protein which is repressing originally transforms into activating in nature.

12. Expression of tTA gene is ________ by doxycycline which is _______ analogue.
a) activated, tetracycline
b) inactivated, chloramphenicol
c) activated, chloramphenicol
d) inactivated, tetracycline

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Expression of tTA gene is inactivated by doxycyline which is tetracycline analogue. It is very strong and the expression is very less in the presence of doxycycline.

13. Glucorticoid-responsive element is ______ promoter from ______ of mouse mammory tumour virus (MMTV).
a) inducible, short terminal repeat region
b) inducible, long terminal repeat region
c) constitutive, short terminal repeat region
d) constitutive, long terminal repeat region

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Glucorticoid-responsive element is an inducible promoter from long terminal repeat region of MMTV. Promoters are basically of two types constitutive and inducible.

14. There are a group of promoters from the genes for metallothioneins. These are a group of proteins rich in ______ residues.
a) cysteine
b) methionine
c) either cysteine or methionine
d) cysteine and methionine both

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] These are rich in cytseine residues which chelate heavy metals to reduce their toxicity. The promoter is induced by treatment of cells with heavy metal ions such as zinc and cadmium.

15. The amount of expression of DNA inserted into a vector _______ on promoter and ______ on chromosomal location.
a) depends only on, not depends
b) depends, depends also
c) doesn’t depends, but depends
d) neither depends, nor depends

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The amount of expression of DNA inserted into a vector is not only dependent on the promoter used but also depends on chromosomal location.

Set 5

1. Isoschizomers are defined as:
a) enzymes having same recognition sequence and always cutting at the same site
b) enzymes having same recognition sequence and always cutting at different site
c) enzymes having different recognition site and cutting at the same site
d) enzymes having same recognition site and they may or may not cut at the same site

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Isoschizomers are the enzymes which are having same recognition sequence but they necessarily don’t cut at the same site. DraI and AhaIII both recognize and cleave at TTT|AAA, whereas on the other hand, ApaI cuts at GGGCC|C and Bspl20I cuts at G|GGCCC.

2. Isocaudomers are defined as the enzymes which recognize different sequence but generate same ends. Which of the following pairs of enzymes can be termed as isocuadomers?
a) DpnI (GA|TC) and Sau3A (|GATC)
b) BamHI (G|GATCC) and Sau3A (|GATC)
c) DpnI (GA|TC) and BglII (A|GATCT)
d) XbaI (T|CTAGA) and BamHI (G|GATCC)

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] BamHI on cleavage leaves GATC as the single stranded end and the same end is left by Sau3A as double stranded, though there recognition sequences are different. The other options don’t satisfy the condition.

3. The specificity of enzyme is affected by the concentration of buffer used. This phenomenon is termed as:
a) star activity
b) specificity elevation
c) concentration gradient effects
d) diamond activity

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] As concentration of buffer is varied, the specificity of enzyme is lost and this phenomenon is termed as star activity. By loss of specificity we mean that, instead of a particular sequence, a particular set of sequences can be identified.

4. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to a unit of enzyme?
a) One unit of enzyme is defined as the amount of enzyme required to digest 1miligram of standard DNA in a specific time of 1hr and under given temperature conditions
b) The amount of enzyme required doesn’t vary with the number of sites present in the DNA
c) If more number of sites is there in the DNA more units of enzyme are required in comparison to same amount of DNA with fewer sites
d) The amount of enzyme required for digestion of DNA with less number of sites is more than that of more number of sites in the same amount of DNA

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] One unit of enzyme is the quantity required for digestion of 1 microgram of DNA in 1hr and under given temperature conditions. The amount of enzyme required is more if more number of sites is there in the same amount of DNA in comparison to less number of sites.

5. Which of the following statement is correct regarding partial digestion?
a) It is defined as the conditions where all the sites in the DNA sequence are not recognized
b) The number of fragments created by partial digestion are same as that of complete digestion
c) It is not useful in representation of genomic library
d) Exactly half of the sites in the DNA are recognized

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Partial digestion is the condition where all the sites aren’t recognized and thus the number of fragments created are not same as that of complete digestion. It is very useful in genomic library representation because nearly each and every segment is represented.

6. Which of the following is the correct nomenclature of a restriction enzyme obtained from the first activity of strain R of Escherichia coli ?
a) EcoR1
b) EscRI
c) EcorI
d) EcoRI

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The first letter is the first letter of the genus and the next two letters are the first two letters of the species. They are then followed by the strain and the activity from which they are isolated. The activity is represented in roman numerals.

7. Why is DNase preferred over restriction endonuclease in some cases?
a) DNase is preferred over restriction endonuclease in some cases because the latter are not able to recognize some of the restriction sites
b) DNase is more specific as restriction endonuclease, so the required fragment is obtained
c) DNase is less specific as compared to restriction endonuclease, hence there are more chances of representation of all the possible fragments
d) DNase is abundant in comparison the restriction endonuclease

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] As the DNase is less specific than restriction endonuclease, thus it cuts more randomly. It further leads to representation of more fragments and hence they can be very useful in genomic library construction.

8. The ends created by use of DNase have unique single stranded sequences.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The ends created by DNase don’t have unique single stranded sequences. It is so because DNase is not specific in nature.

9. Besides enzymatic means, physical stress can also be used for cleaving the DNA. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Sonication, needles, syringes etc. all come under the category of physical stress
b) In physical stress, there are no chances of contamination
c) The ends obtained have unique sequences
d) They are less effective than DNase treatment

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Physical stress methods are used to cleave the DNA randomly and it also generates non-unique ends as the DNase treatment. These include the use of sonication methods, needles and syringes. There are chances of contamination from the metal probes used in the setup used.

10. Phosphatases refer to:
a) the enzymes which add phosphate group at the end of the DNA molecule in the place of hydroxyl group
b) the enzymes which hydrolytically remove phosphate group from the DNA molecules and replace them with hydroxyl group
c) the enzymes responsible for removal of phosphate group from the DNA molecules and replace them with hydrogen
d) the enzymes responsible for replacing hydrogen in the DNA molecules with the phosphate group

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Phosphatases are the enzymes which remove phosphate group and then replace them with the hydroxyl group. Kinases are the enzymes which are responsible for the addition of the phosphate group in place of hydroxyl group.

11. How is phosphatase related to the ligation reactions?
a) Phosphate group is not required for the ligation reaction to take place, thus phosphatase is helpful
b) It is helpful in ceasing the unwanted ligation
c) Phosphatases are not at all related to ligation reactions
d) They act as a catalyst in case of ligation reaction

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Phosphatses are used to stop unwanted ligation. It is so because if phosphatases are present, phosphate would be removed from the ends and it would further block the ligation. It is so because phosphate group is necessary for ligation to take place.

12. How can phosphatase activity terminated prior to a ligation reaction?
a) By heating
b) By cooling
c) By creating vibrations
d) By alternatively cooling and heating

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Heating leads to termination of phosphatase activity prior to a ligation reaction because heating leads to the inactivation of the phosphatase activity.