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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Which type of cement possesses hydraulic qualities?
a) Natural
b) Puzzolona
c) Slag
d) Portland

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Natural cement possesses hydraulic qualities. The fast-setting Rosendale natural cement mortars proved to be more efficient than the mortars based on lime and sand.

2. Select the incorrect statement from the following options.
a) Puzzolona is the oldest cement invented by Romans
b) Natural puzzolona is deposit of volcanic ash
c) Puzzolona was used in making concrete for construction of walls and domes
d) Puzzolona is quite setting cement and posses relatively low strength

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Natural cement is quite setting cement and posses relatively low strength. All the other options are correct. Puzzolona is the oldest cement invented by Romans, used in making concrete for construction of walls and domes.

3. Blast furnace slag is the mixture of
a) Slaked lime and calcium silicate
b) Aluminium silicate and hydrated lime
c) Calcium silicate and aluminium silicate
d) Silica, alumina and calcium oxide

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Blast furnace slag is the mixture of Calcium silicate and aluminium silicate. Ground-granulated blast-furnace slag is obtained by quenching molten iron slag (a by-product of iron and steel-making) from a blast furnace in water or steam, to produce a glassy, granular product that is then dried and ground into a fine powder.

4. Portland cement is made by calcining at temperature equals to
a) 30000C
b) 15000C
c) 18000C
d) 20000C

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Portland cement is made by calcining at temperature equals to 15000C. It is manufactured from chalk and clay which hardens under water and when hard resembles Portland stone in color.

5. Why Gypsum is added after calcination in the manufacture of Portland cement?
a) To prevent flash setting
b) To improve the quality of cement
c) To increase the lime saturation factor
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Gypsum is added after calcination to prevent flash setting and it acts as a retarder.

6. Who is recognised as the “Father of the modern Portland cement industry”?
a) Emil Abderhalden
b) Richard Abegg
c) Peter Agre
d) William Aspdin

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] William Aspdin is recognised as the “Father of the modern Portland cement industry”. Portland cement is the most common type of cement in general use around the world, used as a basic ingredient of concrete, mortar, stucco, and most non-speciality grout.

7. All portland cements are hydraulic cements because they
a) Set and harden in the absence of water
b) Set and harden in the presence of water
c) Do not harden after mixing water
d) None of the mentioned option

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] All portland cements are hydraulic cements because they set and harden under water. This cement not only hardens by reacting with water but also forms a water-resistant product. Portland cement is the most common type of cement in general use around the world, used as a basic ingredient of concrete, mortar, stucco, and most non-speciality grout.

8. The percentage composition of alumina in Portland cement is
a) 60-69
b) 17-25
c) 3-8
d) 2-4

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The percentage composition of alumina in portland cement is 3-8 %. Portland cement clinker is a hydraulic material which shall consist of at least two-thirds by mass of calcium silicates, the remainder consisting of aluminium- and iron-containing clinker phases and other compounds.

9. Which compound causes the cement efflorescent, if present in excess?
a) Iron oxide
b) Alkali oxide
c) Sulphur trioxide
d) Lime

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Alkali oxides causes cement efflorescent, if present in excess. The alkali metals react with oxygen to form several different compounds: suboxides, oxides, peroxides, superoxides, and ozonides.

10. Which compound imparts grey color, strength and hardness to the portland cement?
a) Iron oxide
b) Alumina
c) Magnesium oide
d) Silica

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Iron oxide imparts grey color, strength and hardness to the portland cement.

Set 2

1. Which of the following is a method of particle size measurement?
a) Sieve analysis
b) Microscopic examination
c) Sedimentation analysis
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Sieve analysis, microscopic examination and sedimentation analysis are the three methods of particle size measurement.

2. The minimum size of particle which can be separated through sieve analysis is
a) 75 microns
b) 100 microns
c) 44 microns
d) 20 microns

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The minimum size of particle which can be separated through sieve analysis is 44 microns. The results of sieve analysis are used to describe the properties of the aggregate and to see if it is appropriate for various civil engineering purposes such as selecting the appropriate aggregate for concrete mixes and asphalt mixes as well as sizing of water production well screens.

3. The instrument used for the examination of particle size ≥ 0.5 micron is
a) Microscope
b) Electron microscope
c) Telescope
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The instrument used for the examination of particle size ≥ 0.5 micron is microscope. Microscope is an optical instrument used for viewing very small objects.

4. Sedimentation techniques are particularly useful for the particle size ranging from
a) 50-10 µm
b) 40-2 µm
c) 100-50 µm
d) 80-40µm

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Sedimentation techniques are particularly useful for the particle size ranging from 40-2 µm.

5. Sedimentation analysis is generally applicable to liquid dispersions containing _______________ % solids.
a) 5-10
b) 1-3
c) 2-5
d) 4-8

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Sedimentation analysis is generally applicable to liquid dispersions containing 2-5% solids. It is particularly useful for the particle size ranging from 40-2 µm.

6. Select the incorrect statement from the following option.
a) In the Coulter counter, a narrow orifice is immersed in an electrolyte
b) The resistance across the orifice is continuously noted on an oscilloscope
c) The pulses occurring on the oscilloscope are counted electronically
d) The magnitude of the pulse is inversely proportional to the volume of the electrolyte displaced

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The magnitude of the pulse is directly proportional to the volume of the electrolyte displaced and therefore to the volume of the particle. All the other options are correct.

7. The current generated in photoelectric cell represents the measure of the
a) Turbidity
b) Adhesivity
c) Cohesivity
d) Viscosity

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The current generated in photoelectric cell represents the measure of the turbidity of the suspension. Turbidity is the cloudiness or haziness of a fluid caused by large numbers of individual particles that are generally invisible to the naked eye. It is the capacity of water to disperse the light.

8. Adsorption method for measurement of total surface area involves the evaluation of quantity of
a) Helium gas
b) Oxygen gas
c) Nitrogen gas
d) Argon gas

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Adsorption method for measurement of total surface area involves the evaluation of quantity of nitrogen gas.

9. In photo-extinction method, a source of light is directed through a suspension of
a) Kerosene in cement
b) Cement in kerosene
c) Cement in water
d) Water in cement

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In photo-extinction method, a source of light is directed through a suspension of cement in kerosene on to a photoelectric cell.

10. Fibrous fillers have a high capacity for absorbing energy because of their
a) Shape
b) Size
c) Composition
d) Surface area

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Fibrous fillers have a high capacity for absorbing energy because of their shape. As a result, they impart excellent impart strength to the material.

Set 3

1. The catalyst used in the addition of iodine is
a) Ni/ Pt
b) Lewis acids
c) CH3MgCl
d) HgCl2

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The catalyst used in the addition of iodine is HgCl2. Other catalyst that are mentioned cannot be used for this purpose.

2. State true or false. Drying oils are used as the medium of paints and varnishes.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Drying oils are used as the medium of paints and varnishes. When paints and varnishes are applied in thin layers, linseed oil quickly dries up to form a protective layer.

3. Which of the following is responsible for rancidity?
a) Alkalies
b) Ketones
c) Aldehydes
d) Alcohols

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Volatile acids and aldehydes are responsible for rancidity due to their offensive odour.

4. The number of milligrams of KOH required for the saponification of one gram of oil or fat is called
a) Acid number
b) Iodine number
c) Richert-Meissl number
d) Saponification number

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The number of milligrams of KOH required for the saponification of one gram of oil or fat is called saponification number. The long chain fatty acids found in fats have a low saponification value because they have a relatively fewer number of carboxylic functional groups per unit mass of the fat as compared to short chain fatty acids.

5. Iodine number is defined as number of grams of iodine needed for the iodination of ________ gram/grams of oil or fat.
a) 1
b) 5
c) 100
d) 1000

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Iodine number is defined as number of grams of iodine needed for the iodination of 100 grams of oil or fat. Iodine numbers are often used to determine the amount of unsaturation in fatty acids. This unsaturation is in the form of double bonds, which react with iodine compounds. The higher the iodine number, the more C=C bonds are present in the fat.

6. Richert-Meissl number is defined as the volume of 0.1M KOH solution required for the neutralisation of _______ gram/grams of fat or oil.
a) 1
b) 5
c) 100
d) 1000

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Richert-Meissl number is defined as the volume of 0.1M KOH solution required for the neutralisation of 5grams of fat or oil. It is an indicator of how much volatile fatty acid can be extracted from fat through saponification.

7. Which of the following tells the amount of free fatty acids present in fat or oil?
a) Acid number
b) Iodine number
c) Saponification number
d) Richert-Meissl number

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Acid number tells the amount of free fatty acids present in fat or oil. It is the mass of potassium hydroxide (KOH) in milligrams that is required to neutralize one gram of chemical substance.

8. Which of the following helps in the classification of oils into drying, semi-drying and non-drying categories?
a) Acid number
b) Iodine number
c) Saponification number
d) Richert-Meissl number

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Iodine number helps in the classification of oils into drying, semi-drying and non-drying categories. Iodine numbers are often used to determine the amount of unsaturation in fatty acids. This unsaturation is in the form of double bonds, which react with iodine compounds. The higher the iodine number, the more C=C bonds are present in the fat.

9. Which of the following is of special value in testing the purity of butter and desi-ghee?
a) Acid number
b) Iodine number
c) Saponification number
d) Richert-Meissl number

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Richert-Meissl number is of special value in testing the purity of butter and desi-ghee. It is an indicator of how much volatile fatty acid can be extracted from fat through saponification.

10. State true or false. The smaller is the saponification value, the higher will be the molecular weight of oil or fat.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The smaller is the saponification value, the higher will be the molecular weight of oil or fat. The long chain fatty acids found in fats have a low saponification value because they have a relatively fewer number of carboxylic functional groups per unit mass of the fat as compared to short chain fatty acids.

Set 4

1. Which of the following act as a catalyst in the preparation of Buna-S?
a) Benzoyl peroxide
b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Cumene hydroperoxide
d) Acrylonitrile

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Cumene hydroperoxide act as a catalyst in the preparation of Buna-S (Butadiene styrene).

2. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the SBR?
a) It has low load bearing capacity
b) It has high abrasion resistance
c) It swells in oils and solvents
d) It has low oxidation resistance

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] SBR has high load bearing capacity, high abrasion resistance, swells in oil and solvent and has low oxidation resistance.

3. Which of the following is an application of SBR?
a) Conveyor belts for food
b) Lining of tanks
c) Oil-resistance foam
d) Printing rollers

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Lining of tanks, adhesives, gaskets, motor tyres, etc are some of the applications of SBR.

4. State true or false. Buna-N is prepared by co-polymerisation of butadiene and acrylonitrile in emulsion system.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Buna-N is prepared by co-polymerisation of butadiene and acrylonitrile in emulsion system. Buna-N is nitrile rubber used in the automotive and aeronautical industry to make fuel and oil handling hoses.

5. Which of the following has the best resistance to oils?
a) Natural rubber
b) Neoprene
c) Nitrile rubber
d) Styrene rubber

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Nitrile rubber has the best resistance to oils among the following options. All the other options have lower resistance to oils.

6. Which of the following is not an application of neoprene?
a) Conveyor belts
b) Wire and cable insulation
c) Adhesives
d) Printing rollers

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Conveyor belts, adhesives, wire and cable insulation, shoe-soles, etc are some of the applications of neoprene. Printing rollers is not an application of neoprene.

7. The major constituent of butyl rubber is
a) Isobutylene
b) Isoprene
c) Chloroprene
d) Acrylonitrile

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In butyl rubber, isobutylene constitutes (95-99) % and isoprene constitutes (1-5) %.

8. Which of the following act as a catalyst in the preparation of butyl rubber?
a) Cumene hydroperoxide
b) Anhydrous AlCl3
c) Lewis base
d) Grignard reagent

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Anhydrous AlCl3 act as a catalyst in the preparation of butyl rubber. Butyl rubber is a synthetic rubber, a co-polymer of isobutylene with isoprene.

9. The solvent used in the preparation of butyl rubber is
a) Methyl iodide
b) Methyl halide
c) Methyl chloride
d) Methyl sulphide

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The solvent used in the preparation of butyl rubber is methyl chloride. Butyl rubber is a synthetic rubber, a copolymer of isobutylene with isoprene.

10. State true or false. Because of its hydrocarbon nature, butyl rubber is soluble in hydrocarbon solvents but has excellent resistance to polar solvents like alcohol and acetone.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Because of its hydrocarbon nature, butyl rubber is soluble in hydrocarbon solvents but has excellent resistance to polar solvents like alcohol and acetone. Butyl rubber and halogenated rubber are used for the inner liner that holds the air in the tire.

Set 5

1. Temperature dependence of reaction rates can be studied by plotting a graph between
a) Concentration of reactants and temperature
b) Concentration of products and temperature
c) Rate constant and temperature
d) Rate of catalysis and temperature

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Temperature dependence of reaction rates can be studied by plotting a graph between rate constant and temperature for different reactions.

2. The ratio of the rate constant of a reaction at two temperatures differing by __________0C is called temperature coefficient of reaction.
a) 2
b) 10
c) 100
d) 50

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The ratio of the rate constant of a reaction at two temperatures differing by 100C is called temperature coefficient of reaction.

3. According to Arrhenius equation, rate constant(k) is proportional to
a) Activation Energy (E)
b) eE
c) e1/E
d) e-E

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] According to Arrhenius equation, k = Ae-Ea/RT. So, rate constant(k) is proportional to e-E.

4. How does half life period of a first order reaction vary with temperature?
a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) It remains same
d) Both increases as well as decrease

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Half-life period of a first order reaction is directly proportional to the rate constant. So, it increases with increase in temperature.

5. How many times the rate of reaction increases at 200C for a reaction having the activation energies in the presence and absence of catalyst as 50 kJ/mol and 75 kJ/mol?
a) 1000
b) 10000
c) 30000
d) 50000

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The rate of reaction will increase 28,592 times, i.e. 30,000 times.

6. Which of the following method is used to determine the order of the reaction in which two or more reactants take part?
a) Integration method
b) Half life period method
c) Graphical method
d) Ostwald’s isolation method

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Ostwald’s isolation method is used to determine the order of the reaction in which two or more reactants take part. Kinetic isolation conditions were identified that enabled determination of the reaction order for interfacial charge recombination.

7. Which of the following method is satisfactory only for simple homogeneous reaction?
a) Integration method
b) Half life period method
c) Graphical method
d) Ostwald’s isolation method

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Integration method is satisfactory only for simple homogeneous reaction and lead to wrong conclusion for complex reactions.

8. A zero order reaction is one
a) In which rate is independent of reactants concentration
b) In which one of the reactant is in large excess
c) Whose rate is not affected by time
d) Whose rate increases with time

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A zero order reaction is one in which rate is independent of reactants concentration. It only depends upon the rate constant.