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# Multiple choice question for engineering

## Set 1

1. According to the given transitions, which among the following are the epsilon closures of q1 for the given NFA?
Δ (q1, ε) = {q2, q3, q4}
Δ (q4, 1) =q1
Δ (q1, ε) =q1
a) q4
b) q2
c) q1
d) q1, q2, q3, q4

Answer: d [Reason:] The set of states which can be reached from q using ε-transitions, is called the ε-closure over state q.

2. State true or false?
Statement: An NFA can be modified to allow transition without input alphabets, along with one or more transitions on input symbols.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] It is possible to construct an NFA with ε-transitions, presence of no input symbols, and that is called NFA with ε-moves.

3. State true or false?
Statement: ε (Input) does not appears on Input tape.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: ε does not appears on Input tape, ε transition means a transition without scanning a symbol i.e. without moving the read head.

4. Statement 1: ε- transition can be called as hidden non-determinism.
Which among the following options is correct?
a) Statement 1 and 2, both are correct
b) Statement 1 and 2, both are wrong
c) Statement 1 is correct while Statement 2 is wrong
d) Statement 1 is wrong while Statement 2 is correct

Answer: c [Reason:] The transition with ε leads to a jump but without any shift in read head. Further, the method can be called one to introduce hidden non-determinism.

5. ε- closure of q1 in the given transition graph:
a) {q1}
b) {q0, q2}
c) {q1, q2}
d) {q0, q1, q2}

Answer: c [Reason:] ε-closure is defined as the set of states being reached through ε-transitions from a starting state.

6. Predict the total number of final states after removing the ε-moves from the given NFA?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0

Answer: c [Reason:] The NFA which would result after eliminating ε-moves can be shown diagramatically.

7. For NFA with ε-moves, which among the following is correct?
a) Δ: Q X (∑ U {ε}) -> P(Q)
b) Δ: Q X (∑) -> P(Q)
c) Δ: Q X (∑*) -> P(Q)
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Due to the presence of ε symbol, or rather an epsilon-move, the input alphabets unites with it to form a set including ε.

8. Which among the following is false?
ε-closure of a subset S of Q is:
a) Every element of S ϵ Q
b) For any q ϵ ε(S), every element of δ (q, ε) is in ε(S)
c) No other element is in ε(S)
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: d [Reason:] All the mentioned are the closure properties of ε and encircles all the elements if it satisfies the following options: a) Every element of S ϵ Q b) For any q ϵ ε(S), every element of δ (q, ε) is in ε(S) c) No other element is in ε(S)

9. The automaton which allows transformation to a new state without consuming any input symbols:
a) NFA
b) DFA
c) NFA-l
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] NFA-l or e-NFA is an extension of Non deterministic Finite Automata which are usually called NFA with epsilon moves or lambda transitions.

10. e-transitions are
a) conditional
b) unconditional
c) input dependent
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] An epsilon move is a transition from one state to another that doesnt require any specific condition.

11. The __________ of a set of states, P, of an NFA is defined as the set of states reachable from any state in P following e-transitions.
a) e-closure
b) e-pack
c) Q in the tuple
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] The e-closure of a set of states, P, of an NFA is defined as the set of states reachable from any state in P following e-transitions.

12. The e-NFA recognizable languages are not closed under :
a) Union
b) Negation
c) Kleene Closure
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: d [Reason:] The languages which are recognized by an epsilon Non deterministic automata are closed under the following operations: a) Union b) Intersection c) Concatenation d) Negation e) Star f) Kleene closure

## Set 2

1. Which of the following is NOT delivered by modified atmosphere (MA) or controlled atmosphere (CA)?
a) Delay ripening of fruits
c) Toughing
d) Incidence of storage disorders

Answer: c [Reason:] Toughening and yellowing is NOT delivered by modified atmosphere (MA) or controlled atmosphere (CA). The other positive things like delaying ripening of fruits, retarding spread of diseases and incidence of storage disorders are delivered.

2. Which of the following variables affect gas exchanges into and out of the package?
a) Weight of apples
b) Ethylene concentration
c) Structure of the packaging film
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] Structure of the packaging film affect gas exchanges into and out of the package. Weight of apples and Ethylene concentration affect respiration.

3. Which of the following is NOT the correct method to enhance storage?
a) Reducing pressure
b) Increasing ethylene
c) Decreasing respiration
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Ethylene given out by produce should be reduced to enhance storage/life.

4. Statement 1: Sub atmospheric storage involves ventilating the produce with air saturated with water vapor by continuously evacuating the container with a sealed vacuum pump.
Statement 2: Under hypobaric storage, a gas in equilibrium with its surroundings will have its outward diffusion rate proportional to concentration gradient and diffusivity.
a) True, False
b) True, True
c) False, False
d) False, True

Answer: b [Reason:] Sub atmospheric storage involves ventilating the produce with air saturated with water vapor by continuously evacuating the container with a sealed vacuum pump. Under hypobaric storage, a gas in equilibrium with its surroundings will have its outward diffusion rate proportional to concentration gradient and diffusivity.

5. Under hypobaric storage, when gas is in equilibrium with its surroundings, the diffusivity _____ and concentration gradient _____
a) Increase by ten folds, decreases to one-tenth
b) Decreases to one-tenth, increase by ten folds
c) Stays constant, stays constant
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Under hypobaric storage, when gas is in equilibrium with its surroundings, the diffusivity increase by ten folds and concentration gradient decreases to one-tenth. This is because the concentration difference reduces to a large extent and hence the gradient decreases but since a new equilibrium is established and this always happens, the diffusivity increase.

6. Statement 1: Under hypobaric storage, the gas always attains equilibrium with its surroundings.
Statement 2: Hypobaric storage is a continuous process.
a) True, False
b) True, True
c) False, False
d) False, True

Answer: b [Reason:] Under hypobaric storage, the gas always attains equilibrium with its surroundings. Hypobaric storage is a continuous process.

7. Statement 1: Under hypobaric storage, oxygen content is reduced to reduce rate of synthesis of volatile.
Statement 2: Altering respiration can help in decreasing the production of carbon di oxide.
a) True, False
b) True, True
c) False, False
d) False, True

Answer: b [Reason:] Under hypobaric storage, oxygen content is reduced to reduce rate of synthesis of volatile. Altering respiration can help in decreasing the production of carbon di oxide.

8. Which of the following is true with respect to volatile by controlling oxygen content in storage?
a) Lowing in endogenous concentration increases rate of volatile formation
b) Anaerobiosis favors its production if it is a highly reduced compound
c) Limiting the amount of energy available
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d [Reason:] All of the mentioned is true with respect to volatile by controlling oxygen content in storage.

9. Statement 1: A gas atmosphere containing 20% CO2 is effective in inhibiting slime-producing bacteria.
Statement 2: Meat can be preserved by protecting it from oxygen as majority of bacteria grow in that atmosphere.
a) True, False
b) True, True
c) False, False
d) False, True

Answer: b [Reason:] A gas atmosphere containing 20% CO2 is effective in inhibiting slime-producing bacteria. Meat can be preserved by protecting it from oxygen as majority of bacteria grow in that atmosphere.

10. Statement 1: Influence of bacteria has more effect on the storage of food than the pH control.
Statement 2: Meat color is due to the presence of _____
a) True, myoglobin
b) True, haemoglobin
c) False, myoglobin
d) False, haemoglobin

Answer: a [Reason:] Influence of bacteria has more effect on the storage of food than the pH control. Meat color is due to the presence of myoglobin.

11. Meats stored in _____ environment have a better color than _____
a) CO2, O2
b) O2, CO2
c) CO2, N2
d) N2, O2

Answer: b [Reason:] Meats stored in O2 environment have a better color than CO2. This is because auto-oxidation of myoglobin in the meat takes place which is responsible for the fresh color.

12. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Polyethylene films have a good heat-sealability
b) Polyvinylidene chloride films are gas and water vapor impermeable
c) Nylon films have high physical strength
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d [Reason:] Polyethylene films have a good heat-sealability. Polyvinylidene chloride films are gas and water vapor impermeable. Nylon films have high physical strength.

13. Three level packaging is done for rice. Which bag is for quality control?
a) Inner most bag 1
b) Middle bag 2
c) Outermost bag 3
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Bag 1 is moisture permeable and hence drains out the moisture from the grain. 2nd one is for quality control and the 3rd prevents the 2nd one from breakage.

14. Statement 1: Under water storage is more effective than that in air.
Statement 2: Adsorption of CO2 on the surface of grains is a reversible process.
a) True, False
b) True, True
c) False, False
d) False, True

Answer: b [Reason:] Under water storage is more effective than that in air. Adsorption of CO2 on the surface of grains is a reversible process.

## Set 3

1. Which of the following will be better to use for machining of soft work piece?
a) V-bond
b) R-bond
c) Both V and R bond
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Rubber bond grinding wheel is generally used for machining of soft work piece. Fifth place of ISO designation of grinding wheel represents type of bond.

2. Which of the following grinding wheel would be more economical for grinding of hard work piece?
a) Soft grinding wheel
b) Hard grinding wheel
c) Both hard and soft grinding wheel
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] In soft grinding wheels, during machining of hard work piece glazing will occur after long time.

3. Which of the following grinding wheel would be more economical for grinding of soft work piece?
a) Soft grinding wheel
b) Hard grinding wheel
c) Both hard and soft grinding wheel
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] In hard grinding wheels, during machining of soft work piece glazing will occur after long time and grains of grinding wheel will be effectively utilize before coming out from the wheel.

4. Which of the following grinding wheel would be more economical for grinding of hard work piece?
a) Open structure grinding wheel
b) Dense structure wheel
c) Both dense and open structure grinding wheel
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] In dense structure grinding wheels, during machining of hard work piece material removal rate is small and also wheel have good strength.

5. Which of the following grinding wheel would be more economical for grinding of soft work piece?
a) Open structure grinding wheel
b) Dense structure wheel
c) Both dense and open structure grinding wheel
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] In open structure grinding wheels, during machining of soft work piece material removal rate is large and space for chip flow is also large due to more space between grains of wheel.

6. Material removal rate of grinding process in comparison to material removal rate in facing on lathe is
a) Small
b) Large
c) Same
d) Can’t say about material removal rate

Answer: a [Reason:] Material removal rate in grinding process is very small. Hence grinding is mostly use as finishing process. Only small portion of abrasives are involved in grinding process and hence has less material removal rate.

7. Material removal rate in grinding operation is small due to
a) Negative rake angle
b) Positive rake angle
c) Zero rake angle
d) Material removal rate does not depend on rake angle

Answer: a [Reason:] Grinding wheel have negative rake angle and hence have very small material removal rate. Hence grinding is mostly use as finishing process.

8. Material removal rate in grinding operation is small due to
a) Only small portion of abrasives are involved in cutting
b) Positive rake angle
c) Zero rake angle
d) Material removal rate does not depend on rake angle

Answer: a [Reason:] Only small portion of abrasives are involved in grinding process and hence has less material removal rate. Hence grinding is mostly use as finishing process.

9. Material removal rate in grinding operation is small due to
a) Large portion of abrasives are involved in cutting
b) Positive rake angle
c) Due to temperature rise during grinding
d) Material removal rate does not depend on rake angle

Answer: c [Reason:] Due to increase in temperature during grinding operation some material get welded again with the chip.

10. Grinding ratio generally lies between
a) 0.5-10
b) 100-200
c) 1000-200
d) 30-40

Answer: a [Reason:] Grinding ratio = (volume of material removed/volume of wheel wear). G.R is generally between 0.5-10.

## Set 4

1. Which of the following forces is favorable for protein folding?
a) Hydrophobic interactions
b) Hydrogen bonding
c) Vander Waals forces
d) Ionic bonding

Answer: a [Reason:] Hydrophobic interactions aids in keeping protein stable and biologically active by allowing the protein to reduce its surface area.

2. A process by which a protein structure assumes its functional shape or conformation is
a) Denaturing
b) Folding
c) Synthesis
d) Hydrolysis

Answer: b [Reason:] Proteins by folding into their 3-D conformation are able to perform their biological function.

3. Process of folding does not depend on
a) Concentration of salts
b) pH
c) Solute
d) Solvent

Answer: c [Reason:] Process of folding depends on concentration of salts, pH and solvent.

4. Which of the following cannot denature a protein?
a) Iodoacetic acid
b) SDS detergent
c) Urea
d) Heating to 90°C

Answer: a [Reason:] Iodoacetic acid, an alkylating agent cannot denature protein.

5. Which of the following is a function of chaperone protein?
a) It degrades proteins that have folded improperly
b) It provide a template for how the proteins should fold
c) It rescues proteins that have folded improperly and allows them to refold properly
d) It degrades proteins that have folded properly

Answer: c [Reason:] Molecular chaperons are proteins that interact with partially folded polypeptides, facilitating correct folding pathways in which folding can occur.

6. As folding progresses which of the following does not take place?
a) Entropy decreases
b) Amount of protein in native state increases
c) Free energy increases
d) Amount of protein in native state decreases

Answer: d [Reason:] As folding progresses, entropy decreases, amount of protein in native state increases and free energy increases.

7. Which of the following are chaperons in E.coli?
a) Hsp70
b) Hsp40
c) DnaA
d) DnaK and DnaJ

Answer: d [Reason:] Hsp70 and Hsp40 are chaperons in eukaryotes.

8. Which of the following about spontaneous folding is false?
a) It involves initial formation of highly compact structure
b) It involves initial formation of a local secondary structure
c) It is essentially a random process
d) It may be defective in some human diseases

Answer: c [Reason:] Protein folding is a spontaneous process aided by the hydrophobic interactions which is not random.

9. Protein A will fold into its native state only when protein B is also present in the solution. However protein B can fold itself into native confirmation without the presence of protein A. Which of the following is true?
a) Protein B serves as precursor for protein A
b) Protein B serves as molecular chaperon for protein A
c) Protein B serves as ligand for protein A
d) Protein B serves as structural motif for protein A

Answer: b [Reason:] Not all proteins fold spontaneously as they are synthesized in the cell. Folding for many proteins is facilitated by the action of specialized proteins known as molecular chaperons.

10. Which of the following is true about ribonucease?
a) Native state which is catalytically inactive is denatured
b) Unfolded state is inactive
c) Renatured ribonuclease is inactive
d) Renaturation involves reestablishment of the correct disulfide cross links

Answer: a [Reason:] Native is catalytically active and undergoes denaturation by the addition of urea and mercaptoetanol.

## Set 5

1. In the tem tech thermal sand reclamation system, how many fluidized beds are used?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Answer: b [Reason:] In the tem tech thermal reclamation system, a fluidized bed plays an important role in the sand reclamation system. There are in total two fluidized beds that are used.

2. In the tem tech thermal sand reclamation system, the recirculating air ensures what?
a) Even pressure drop
b) Even temperature drop
c) Even volume drop
d) Even loss of mass

Answer: a [Reason:] In tem tech thermal sand reclamation system, the recirculating air ensures an even pressure drop at all its orifices.

3. What is the heat source of fluidized bed in tem tech thermal sand reclamation system?
a) Flame heating
b) Ultraviolet heating
c) Infrared heating
d) Conduction heating

Answer: c [Reason:] In tem tech thermal sand reclamation system, overall there are two beds involved in it and in them, shortwave infrared emitters are used in the beds.

4. In tem tech thermal sand reclamation system, in the infrared heating system, which material is used in the beds?
a) Copper
b) Iron
c) Silver
d) Tungsten

Answer: d [Reason:] In tem tech thermal sand reclamation system, in the heating process by shortwave infrared emitters, tungsten elements are used.

5. What is the maximum working temperature in a fluidized bed in tem tech thermal sand reclamation system?
a) 1000°C
b) 2000°C
c) 3000°C
d) 4000°C

Answer: b [Reason:] In tem tech working system, there are two fluidized beds involved. The maximum working temperature in a fluidized bed in a tem tech thermal sand reclamation system is 2000°C.

6. The infrared radiation passes through what before entering into the fluidized bed?
a) Prism
b) Concave lens
c) Quartz
d) Convex lens

Answer: c [Reason:] In the tem tech thermal sand reclamation system, the infrared radiation passes through a quartz sleeve before entering the fluidized bed.

7. Up to what accuracy can the temperature of the bed be controlled in tem tech thermal sand reclamation system?
a) ± 1%
b) ± 2%
c) ± 3%
d) ± 4%

Answer: b [Reason:] The temperature of the bed can be controlled to an accuracy of ± 2%, in tem tech thermal sand reclamation system. These fluidized beds essentially need a very accurate temperature control.

8. In tem tech thermal sand reclamation system, what is the maximum current temperature?
a) 600°C
b) 700°C
c) 800°C
d) 900°C

Answer: c [Reason:] In tem tech thermal sand reclamation system, a high amount of temperature has to be maintained. The maximum current temperature is 800°C.

9. In tem tech thermal sand reclamation system, how much is the energy conversion efficiency?
a) 75%
b) 80%
c) 85%
d) 90%