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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Reuse-based software engineering is a software engineering strategy where the development process is geared to reusing existing software.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

2. The open source movement has meant that there is a huge reusable code base available at
a) free of cost
b) low cost
c) high cost
d) short period of time

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The open source movement has meant that there is a huge reusable code base available at low cost. This may be in the form of program libraries or entire applications.

3. Consider the example and categorize it accordingly, “A pattern-matching system developed as part of a text-processing system may be reused in a database management system”.
a) Application system reuse
b) Component reuse
c) Object and function reuse
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Components of an application, ranging in size from subsystems to single objects, may be reused.

4. COTS stands for
a) Commercial Off-The-Shelf systems
b) Commercial Off-The-Shelf states
c) Commercial Off-The-System state
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

5. COTS product reuse means
a) Class and function libraries that implement commonly used abstractions are available for reuse
b) Shared components are woven into an application at different places when the program is compiled
c) Large-scale systems that encapsulate generic business functionality and rules are configured for an organization
d) Systems are developed by configuring and integrating existing application systems

View Answer

Answer: d

6. .NET are specific to which platform?
a) Java
b) Mac-OS
c) Microsoft
d) LINUX

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] NET Framework (pronounced dot net) is a software framework developed by Microsoft that runs primarily on Microsoft Windows.

7. Which of the following is a generic structure that is extended to create a more specific subsystem or application?
a) Software reuse
b) Object-oriented programming language
c) Framework
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Frameworks are implemented as a collection of concrete and abstract object classes in an object-oriented programming language.

8. “An ordering system may be adapted to cope with a centralized ordering process in one company and a distributed process in another.” Which category the example belong to?
a) Process specialization
b) Platform specialization
c) Environment specialization
d) Functional specialization

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In process specialization, the system is adapted to cope with specific business processes.

9. What are generic application systems that may be designed to support a particular business type, activity, or sometimes a complete enterprise?
a) COTS-solution systems
b) COTS-integrated systems
c) ERP systems
d) Both COTS-solution and COTS-integrated systems

View Answer

Answer: a

10. Which of the following is not an advantages of software reuse?
a) lower costs
b) faster software development
c) high effectiveness
d) lower risks

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Effectiveness depends on how one reuses the existing product.

11. ERP stands for
a) Effective Reuse Planning
b) Enterprise Resource Planning
c) Effective Research Planning
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Enterprise Resource Planning systems are examples of large-scale COTS reuse.

12. Which framework class include standards and classes that support component communication and information exchange?
a) System infrastructure frameworks
b) Middleware integration frameworks
c) Enterprise application frameworks
d) MVC

View Answer

Answer: b

Set 2

1. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Risk identification states what could cause a potential loss.

2. Which one is not a risk management activity?
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.

3. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

4. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Technical risks identify potential design, implementation, interface, verification, and maintenance problems.

5. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.

6. Which of the following is not a business risk?
a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] This is not considered as a business risk.

7. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] By identifying known and predictable risks, the project manager takes a first step toward avoiding them when possible and controlling them when necessary.

8. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks

View Answer

Answer: c

9. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks

View Answer

Answer: a

10. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk

View Answer

Answer: a

Set 3

1. Software Debugging is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted systematically.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Software Testing is a set of such activities.

2. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
a) Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
b) Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
c) Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing strategy
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

3. ITG stands for
a) instantaneous test group
b) integration testing group
c) individual testing group
d) independent test group

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The role of an independent test group (ITG) is to remove the inherent problems associated with letting the builder test the thing that has been built.

4. By collecting ________ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process.
a) Failure intensity
b) Testing time
c) Metrics
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] It answers questions like: “When are we done with testing?”.

5. Which of the following issues must be addressed if a successful software testing strategy is to be implemented?
a) Use effective formal technical reviews as a filter prior to testing
b) Develop a testing plan that emphasizes “rapid cycle testing.”
c) State testing objectives explicitly
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] All the mentioned options are carried out for the purpose.

6. Test cases should uncover errors like
a) Nonexistent loop termination
b) Comparison of different data types
c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Test cases should uncover errors such as all the explained options and much more.

7. Which of the following errors should not be tested when error handling is evaluated?
a) Error description is unintelligible
b) Error noted does not correspond to error encountered
c) Error condition causes system intervention prior to error handling
d) Error description provide enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Actually, error description does not provide enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error.

8. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step
a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
c) Completion of Testing
d) Regression Testing

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] After source level code has been developed, reviewed, and verified for correspondence to component level design, unit test case design begins.

9. Which of the following is not regression test case?
a) A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions
b) Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change
c) Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed
d) Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software sub-function

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Regression testing may be conducted manually, by re-executing a subset of all test cases or using automated capture or playback tools

10. Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-wrapped” software products are being developed?
a) Regression Testing
b) Integration testing
c) Smoke testing
d) Validation testing

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Smoke testing is designed as a pacing mechanism for time-critical projects, allowing the software team to assess its project on a frequent basis.

11. In which testing level the focus is on customer usage?
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Validation Testing
d) Both Alpha and Beta

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Alpha testing is done at developer’s end while beta testing is done at user’s end.

12. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Its verification, while validation refers to a different set of tasks that ensure that the software that has been built is traceable to customer requirements.

Set 4

1. Which of the following term describes testing?
a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Software testing is the process of evaluation a software item to detect differences between given input and expected output.

2. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Cyclomatic complexity measures the amount of decision logic in the program module.Cyclomatic complexity gives the minimum number of paths that can generate all possible paths through the module.

3. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A run chart is used to monitor the behavior of a variable over time for a process or system. Run charts graphically display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random patterns in behavior over time. It contains lower and upper limits.

4. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?
a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Maintenance Testing is done on the already deployed software. The deployed software needs to be enhanced, changed or migrated to other hardware. The Testing done during this enhancement, change and migration cycle is known as maintenance testing.

5. White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The structural testing is the testing of the structure of the system or component. Structural testing is often referred to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or ‘clear-box testing’ because in structural testing we are interested in what is happening ‘inside the system/application’.

6. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Exhaustive testing is the testing where we execute single test case for multiple test data.It means if we are using single test case for different product or module under manual testing. testing .

7. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Statement testing, decision testing, condition coverage all of them uses white box technique.

8. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Unit, system, integration testing all of them are levels in testing.

9. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Boundary value analysis is based on testing at the boundaries between partitions and checks the output with expected output.

10. Alpha testing is done at
a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Alpha testing takes place at the developer’s end. Developers observe the users and note problems. Alpha testing is testing of an application when development is about to complete. Minor design changes can still be made as a result of alpha testing.

Set 5

1. What do you understand by V&V in software testing?
a) Verified Version
b) Version Validation
c) Verification and Validation
d) Version Verification

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] V&V generally refers to any activity that attempts to ensure that the software will function as required.

2. In static test techniques, behavioral and performance properties of the program are observed.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Static Analysis Techniques are based solely on the (manual or automated) examination of project documentation of software models and code.

3. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?
a) Unit Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) Acceptance Testing
d) Regression Testing

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Integration testing is the phase in software testing in which individual software modules are combined and tested as a group.

4. Which test refers to the retesting of a unit, integration and system after modification, in order to ascertain that the change has not introduced new faults?
a) Regression Test
b) Smoke Test
c) Alpha Test
d) Beta Test

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Regression test seeks to uncover new software bugs in existing functional and non-functional areas of a system after changes have been made to them.

5. Which of the following is a black box testing strategy?
a) All Statements Coverage
b) Control Structure Coverage
c) Cause-Effect Graphs
d) All Paths Coverage

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Rest are test strategies of white box testing.

6. A set of inputs, execution preconditions and expected outcomes is known as a
a) Test plan
b) Test case
c) Test document
d) Test Suite

View Answer

Answer: b

7. In which test design each input is tested at both ends of its valid range and just outside its valid range?
a) Boundary value testing
b) Equivalence class partitioning
c) Boundary value testing AND Equivalence class partitioning
d) Decision tables

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Boundary value analysis is a software testing technique in which tests are designed to include representatives of boundary values.

8. A white box test scales up well at different granularity levels of testing.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] A white box test is mostly applicable at unit and integration testing level.

9. When does the testing process stops?
a) When resources (time and budget) are over
b) When some coverage is reached
c) When quality criterion is reached
d) Testing never ends

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] As software testing is an exhaustive process, when the quality assurance is established and the product is ready to be delivered, testing is stopped.

10. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?
a) Test Plan
b) Test Design Specification
c) Test Case Specification
d) Test Log

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Test log is a part of testing result document.

11. Specifying a set of test cases or test paths for each item to be tested at that level is known as
a) Test case generation
b) Test case design
c) ALL of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

12. Acceptance & system test planning are a part of architectural design.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] They are a part of requirements engineering, while integration & unit test planning come under architectural design.

13. PRD stands for
a) Product Requirement Document
b) Project Requirement Document
c) Product Restrictions Document
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A product requirements document (PRD) is a document written by a company that defines a product they are making, or the requirements for one or more new features for an existing product.