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Applied Chemistry MCQ Set 1

1. The term biomass most often refers to ___________
a) Inorganic matter
b) Organic matter
c) Chemicals
d) Ammonium compounds

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The term biomass is most often refers to the organic matters such as timber and crops grown specially to be burnt to generate heat and power.

2. Dead organisms are also comes under the biomass.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Dead organisms are also comes under the biomass. Some living organisms, recently dead organisms and by-products of plants and animals are also comes under biomass.

3. Biomass is useful to produce __________
a) Chemicals
b) Fibres
c) Biochemicals
d) Transportation fuels

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Biomass is useful to produce the transportation fuels. It is also useful to produce the renewable electricity and thermal energy.

4. Which one of the following is an example of starch crops biomass feed stocks?
a) Sugar cane
b) Wheat straw
c) Corn stover
d) Orchard prunings

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The grains and starch crops biomass are sugar cane, iron, wheat , sugar beats and instrial sweet and potatoes.

5. Which of the following forestry materials can be used as biomass?
a) Logging residues
b) Tallow
c) Fish oil
d) Manure

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The forestry materials that can be used as the biomass is logging residues. The tallow, fish oil and manure comes under the animal-by-products that can be used as biomass.

6. Which of the following is not used as biomass?
a) Hybrid poplar
b) Willow algae
c) Iron nails
d) Trap grease

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The hybrid poplar and willow algae are the energy crops that can be used as the biomass. The trap greases comes under the urban wastes that can be used as biomass. Iron nails are not the biomass.

7. The aerobic digestion of sewage is used to produce __________
a) Biomass
b) Bio fuels
c) Synthetic fuels
d) Metal articles

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The aerobic digestion of sewage is used to produces the bio fuels. The fuels that can be derived from the biomass are called as the bio fuels.

8. Bio ethanol is denatured alcohol that is also called as __________
a) Ethylene
b) Methylated spirit
c) Ethylene glycol
d) Methylene

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Bio ethanol is denatured alcohol. It is also called as methylated spirit. It causes blindness on consumption.

9. The production of bio ethanol is by fermenting the _________ and starch components.
a) Acid
b) Milk
c) Sugar
d) Alcohol

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The bio ethanol is produced by fermenting the sugar and starch components of plant products. First it is subjected to the milling and mixed with water and enzymes.

10. The bio ethanol is subjected to rectification to remove ___________
a) Sugar
b) Enzymes
c) Yeast
d) Impurities

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] After adding the water and enzymes, the sugar syrup and yeast is subjected to fermentation followed by distillation and the rectification to remove impurities.

11. The bio ethanol obtained in the fermentation process has __________ purity.
a) 99%
b) 99.2%
c) 99.4%
d) 99.7%

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The bio ethanol obtained in the formation process has the 99.7% purity. The highest purity is obtained fermentation process.

12. The by-products that are produced during rectification of bio ethanol is used as_________
a) Pig feed
b) Cow feed
c) Dog feed
d) Sheep feed

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The by-products that are obtained during rectification of bio ethanol are evaporated, dried and can be used as dog feed.

13. To make transport fuel the bio ethanol is blended with _________
a) Diesel
b) Petrol
c) Oil
d) Kerosene

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] To make the transport fuel, the bio ethanol is blended with the petrol. It is one of the applications of the bio ethanol.

14. _________ is called as the bio gas.
a) Bio ethanol
b) Bio methane
c) Bio diesel
d) Bio butanol

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The bio methane is called as the bio gas. It is used mainly for cooking purposes. It is mostly produced from animal wastes.

15. The percentage of carbondioxide in the bio methane is ____________
a) 30-40
b) 32-43
c) 35-45
d) 55-60

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The bio methane is the mixture of the methane, carbondioxide, small amounts of nitrogen. The carbondioxide is nearly of 32-43%.

Applied Chemistry MCQ Set 2

1. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) 1k.Cal=2B.Th.U
b) 1B.Th.U=252Cal
c) 1k.Cal=100Cal
d) 1k.Cal=4C.H.U

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] 1B.Th.U=252Cal is the correct one. 1k.Cal=2B.Th.U is wrong because 1k.Cal=3.968B.Th.U=2.2 C.H.U. So 1k.Cal=4C.H.U is also wrong. Kilo means 1000. So, 1k.Cal=1000Cal.

2. To calculate HCV of the fuel, the products of combustion are cooled down to _____
a) 600F
b) 700F
c) 400F
d) 200F

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The products of combustion are cooled down to 600F or 150C that is room temperature. The hydrogen gas gets converted into steam.

3. When the coal is completely burnt in air, then the maximum temperature reached is called _________
a) calorific value of coal
b) gross calorific value
c) calorific intensity of coal
d) net calorific value

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Calorific value of coal is defined as the amount of heat liberated during combustion of fuel completely. Gross calorific value or HCV means the total heat liberated after combustion of fuel and products must be cooled. Net calorific value is the total heat liberated after combustion of fuel and products are allowed to escape. So, the maximum temperature reached is calorific intensity of coal.

4. To calculate the net calorific value, the products are:
a) cooled
b) allowed to escape
c) heated
d) collected

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The products in finding NCV are allowed to escape as the hot gases has no chance of condensation. Cooled in HCV.

5. The Bomb calorimeter is used to determine the calorific value of:
a) solids and liquid fuels
b) solid and gaseous fuels
c) liquid fuels that can be easily vaporized
d) solid fuels only

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In Bomb calorimeter, we can find calorific value of both solid and gas fuels. In Boy’s calorimeter we can fin calorific value for gaseous and easily vaporized liquid fuels.

6. The calorific value of LPG is generally _______ than that of coal.
a) higher
b) lower
c) half
d) very lesser

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Generally, the calorific values of liquid fuels are more than that of solid fuels. They produce more heat than liquid. So, the calorific value of LPG is more than that of coal.

7. If there is more oxygen content in fuel, then the calorific value of the fuel is:
a) high
b) low
c) moderate
d) very high

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The oxygen content in fuel will reduce its ability to burn and so that it cannot produce more amount of heat. So, the calorific value will be low.

8. Which of the following fuel gas will have highest calorific value?
a) Water gas
b) Bio gas
c) Producer gas
d) Natural gas

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Natural gas produces high amount of heat when compared to other three gases. Water gas and producer gas are synthetic fuels and natural gas natural fuel.

Applied Chemistry MCQ Set 3

1. Estimation of hardness can be determined by ________ types.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Estimation of hardness can be determined by two types. They are, Soap titration method and EDTA method.

2. Total hardness of water can be determined by titrating the fixed volume of water against the standard ___________ solution.
a) Soap
b) Alkaline soap
c) Acidic soap
d) Alcoholic soap

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Total hardness of water can be determined by titrating the fixed volume of water against the standard alcoholic soap solution.

3. The end point of the titration in the soap titration method is ___________
a) Formation of lather
b) Formation of salts
c) Formation of carbonates
d) Formation of bicarbonates

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The end point of the titration in the soap titration method is at formation of lather that stands for about two minutes.

4. The sodium soap will precipitate all the hardness causing ions into their respective __________
a) Carbonates
b) Bicarbonates
c) Stereates
d) Chlorides

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The sodium soap will precipitate all the hardness causing ions into their respective stereates in the beginning of the soap titration method.

5. The water which form lather directly with the soap is called __________
a) Hard water
b) Soft water
c) Partially hard water
d) Very hard water

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The water which forms lather directly with the soap is called soft water. The water which forms precipitates when reacted with soap is called as the hard water.

6. EDTA method is also called as_________
a) Complexometric titration
b) Complex titration
c) Complement titration
d) Complexion titration

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] EDTA method is also called as the complexometric titration. In EDTA method is ethylene diamine tetra acetate is the compound used to remove the hardness.

7. The indicator used in the EDTA method is___________
a) Benzene
b) Phenopthalene
c) Ethylene diamine
d) Erichrome black T

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The indicator used in the EDTA method is erichrome black T. The hardness causing ions like Ca++ and Mg++ forms the unstable complexes with reacting the erichrome black T.

8. EDTA has the ability to form _________ with metal ions.
a) Stable complexes
b) Unstable complexes
c) Salts
d) Acids

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] EDTA has the more affinity to form the stable complexes by reacting with metal ions. The EDTA forms the stable EDTA complexes.

9. The colour of dye metal complex and dye are ___________
a) Same
b) Different
c) Same in only some cases
d) Cannot be known

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The colour of dye metal complex and dye are different. EDTA extracts the metal ions from the metal ion dye to form stable complex.

10. The change in colour is sharper at the PH of ________
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The change in the colour of the ions is sharper at the PH of the 10 than that of the other ranges of the PH.

11. At PH=10, the metal dye complex has the colour________
a) Wine red
b) Blue
c) Green
d) Pink

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] At the PH=10, the metal dye complex ion has the colour is wine red but the dye itself has the blue colour at the PH of 10.

12. To prepare EDTA solution, _________ grams of EDTA is dissolved in the one litre of water.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] To prepare EDTA solution, four grams of the EDTA is dissolved in the one litre of the water. This is the standard EDTA solution used to determine the hardness of water.

13. _________drops of indicator is used in the EDTA method.
a) 1 to 2 drops
b) 2 to 3 drops
c) 2 to 4 drops
d) 5 to 8 drops

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] 1 to 2 drops of the indicator is used in the EDTA method. 0.5gms of the dye is dissolved into the 100ml of alcohol and the indicator of two to three drops is added.

14. The buffer used in the EDTA solution must have the PH of___________
a) 20
b) 15
c) 10
d) 5

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The buffer used in the EDTA solution must have the PH of 10. Freshly prepared solutions are more affective to have the accurate results.

15. The standard hard water is prepared such that each ml must contain ________ mg of CaCO3.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The 1g of pure CaCO3 is dissolved in the minimum amount of concentrated HCL diluted to 1ltr of distilled water such that it contains 1mg of CaCO3.

Applied Chemistry MCQ Set 4

1. Carbon nano tubes are the sheets of graphite about ________
a) 0.1nm
b) 0.2nm
c) 0.3nm
d) 0.4nm

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Carbon nano tubes are the sheets of graphite about 0.4nm in diameter. They are rolled up to make nm in diameter. They are very small in size.

2. Carbon nano tubes are also called as ________
a) Bucky tubes
b) Bulky tubes
c) Bulk tubes
d) Buck balls

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Carbon nano tubes are also called as bucky tubes because they are also made up of graphite and they are in the form of tubes instead of balls. So, they are also called as bucky tubes.

3. Carbon nano tubes are first observed in _________
a) 1992
b) 1991
c) 1990
d) 1993

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Carbon nano tubes are observed in an year 1991 in the soot of the graphite during the arc discharge. First production of CNT was in 1992 by arc discharge method.

4. In how many methods the CNT can be prepared?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The carbon nano tubes can be prepared in 4 types. They are: 1. arc discharge method, 2. laser ablation method, 3. plasma torch method, 4. chemical vapour deposition method.

5. The current used in the arc discharge method is about _________
a) 100mA
b) 200mA
c) 300mA
d) 400mA

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The current used in the arc discharge method is about 100mA. By arc discharge of graphite electrodes in presence of ionised gas to reach high temperatures.

6. The carbon contained in the negative electrode sublimates.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The carbon contained in the negative electrode sublimates because of high discharge temperature. This method is widely used method.

7. The yield of the laser ablation is ______________
a) 30%
b) 70%
c) 80%
d) 90%

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The yield of the laser ablation is 70%. The reaction temperature determines the diameter of the single walled CNT.

8. Laser ablation method is developed by _______
a) Kelvin
b) Richard Smalley
c) Watson and crick
d) Neils bohr

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Laser ablation method is developed by Dr. Richard Smalley at rice university, USA. In this process a pulsed laser vaporises a graphite target.

9. A water cooled surface is used in the process to collect __________
a) Nano particles
b) Nano tubes
c) Nano spheres
d) Nano sheets

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] A water cooled surface is used in the process to collect the nano tubes. While an inert gas is blend into chamber, the nano tubes settles on cooler surfaces.

10. To improve the composite of graphite _______ is used as catalyst.
a) CO
b) NI
c) CO and NI
d) TIO

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] To improve the composite of graphite CO and NI mixture is used as catalyst. They are used to synthesise the single walled CNT.

11. Plasma torch method is used in the year ________
a) 2005
b) 2004
c) 2002
d) 2001

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Plasma torch method is used in the year 2005 at national research council of Canada. It is used to make the single walled CNT.

12. Plasma torch method is similar to the __________
a) Laser ablation
b) Arc discharge
c) Chemical vapour decomposition
d) Electrolysis

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] plasma torch method is similar to the arc discharge method. It is first started to make the single walled CNT in 2005.

13. Plasma torch method is produces ______ of CNT per minute.
a) 1Gms
b) 2Gms
c) 3Gms
d) 4Gms

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Plasma torch method is produce 2gms of CNT per minute. A metal crystal is used. In a thermal plasma torch method is a high frequency oscillating current in a coil.

14. Chemical vapour decomposition is developed in an year ________
a) 2001
b) 2002
c) 2006
d) 2007

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Chemical vapour decomposition is developed in a year 2007 at university of Cincinnati, USA. In this method the substrate is prepared with a layer of metal catalyst nano particles.

15. The substrate is heated to ________
a) 200C
b) 300C
c) 400C
d) 700C

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The substrate is heated to 700C and a mixture of nitrogen and carbon containing acetylene or ethylene or ethanol or methane was passed.

Applied Chemistry MCQ Set 5

1. What is the ignition temperature of a good fuel?
a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) 1000C

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The ignition temperature of a good fuel must be moderate because it is really hard to produce more heat and It requires large amount energy to produce high temperature and to achieve too low temperatures is also a difficult task. Moderate temperature can be produced easily.

2. What is the calorific value of an ideal fuel?
a) 30.8k.cal
b) High
c) 20.2k.cal
d) Low

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] An ideal fuel must contain high calorific value. A calorific value is the amount of heat produced by complete combustion of a good fuel. So, more the fuel which produces more heat on complete burning will be the ideal one.

3. The rate of combustion of a good fuel must be________
a) Controllable
b) High
c) Low
d) Very high

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The rate of the combustion of a good fuel must be controllable because if it is high or very high we cannot calculate the time taken by the fuel to burn and if it is low also we cannot observe the time taken.

4. The products of combustion of a good fuel _________
a) CO2
b) CO
c) Must not be harmful
d) Must be harmful

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The good fuel must not produce harmful products that affect the surroundings and nature. Both CO and CO2 are harmful gases.

5. The moisture content of the good fuel must be_________
a) 50%
b) High in amount
c) Low in amount
d) 70%

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] We cannot say exact moisture content of a good fuel but it must be low in amount because the fuel with high moisture content will not burn properly and results in less heat and less calorific value. For a good fuel calorific value is more.

6. Artificial fuels are mainly prepared from________
a) petrol
b) peat
c) coal
d) natural gas

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Artificial fuels are produced by man. Peat, coal and natural gas are directly available from nature. Petrol is produced by man using fractional distillation process.

7. On combusting a solid fuel, the final product obtained in high amount is________
a) oxygen
b) nitrogen
c) ash
d) ozone

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] After combusting a fuel the product left in more amount is ash. The oxygen and ozone cannot be produced in most of the cases. Nitrogen may be produced but in small amount than that of ash.

8. The major advantage of a good fuel is _______
a) ease of transportation
b) production of more oxygen
c) production of more nitrogen
d) production of more vapor

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The good fuel can be transported easily. It is the main advantage of a good fuel. It reduces the cost of transportation and makes it ideal.

9. Which of the following is a synthetic fuel in gas form?
a) Natural gas
b) Producer gas
c) LPG
d) Petroleum

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The producer gas is a synthetic fuel in gas form whereas, natural gas is a natural fuel in gas form. LPG and petroleum are liquid fuels.

10. A fuel is a combustible substance containing ______ as major constitute.
a) nitrogen
b) oxygen
c) carbon
d) hydrogen

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In every fuel the major constitute is carbon. The other components like oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen and sulphur are also present but in very small amounts when compared to carbon.